Coherent risk measures and why VaR is not coherent (FRM T4-5)

Sdílet
Vložit
  • čas přidán 4. 09. 2024

Komentáře • 9

  • @monkiedeinhau557
    @monkiedeinhau557 Před 3 lety

    This is the best explanation I have heard regarding these topics, thank you.

  • @peiwang3223
    @peiwang3223 Před 3 lety +1

    Thanks a lot fot this very clear and detailed explanation, really clarify my confusions,

  • @Narek173377
    @Narek173377 Před 5 lety +1

    Problem here is that the number of bonds can be only integer (whole number). That is to say you can not own 1.5 bonds or 0.7 of a bond. You ether have 1, 2, 0 etc. So 95% Var is perhaps the default of 1.5 bond and 96% Var is the default of 1.8 bonds. We can say loosing 1.5 bond or 1.8 bond is the same as loosing 1 bond in both cases as you simply can't loose .5 or .7 of a bond. thus 95% probability is equal to 96% probability. So may be the problem is not in VaR? May be the problem is in using VaR in Bernoulli distribution?

  • @rjmorpheus
    @rjmorpheus Před 5 lety +1

    I love these videos...would it be too much to ask recommendations on viable textbooks for this subject in particular? VaR and ES?

    • @ta55o5
      @ta55o5 Před 4 měsíci +1

      Kevin Dowd - Measuring Market Risk

    • @rjmorpheus
      @rjmorpheus Před 4 měsíci

      @@ta55o5 Thank you....

  • @investwithvincent6329
    @investwithvincent6329 Před 2 lety

    12:48 What does "0" represent?

  • @investwithvincent6329
    @investwithvincent6329 Před 2 lety

    18:28 Why is that risk measures becomes more important of a concern when we have fat tails?

    • @y5jeyfuyf
      @y5jeyfuyf Před rokem +1

      skew and kurtosis, we cant go beyond 3 thus mean is not representative therefore, we use GARCH and EWMA