Looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, 🙏 SHALOM 🙏 🙏Glory To God. Amen 🌷 🙏 Praise The Lord. Amen 🌷 🙏 Thank You Jesus. Amen 🌷
I am an ELCA Lutheran from South Carolina. Today is December 24. It is Christmas Eve. This passage from the Book of Titus will most likely be read in churches tonight. And here is hoping that everyone reading this has a Merry Christmas.
This is so beautiful and what you have pointed out, God is so good to us to see we are taken care of completely ♥We are so blessed♥ Your teaching is a number 1♡blessing!Thank you♡
Woe unto the one that perverts the word of God. Stop sinning and obey. This is our call. Genesis 4:7 KJV If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him. Do well! Go and sin no more. John 5:14
No, Grace is here. Now. On earth. All scripture is prophecy written to us in the very last times. Right now, all who call upon the name of the Lord will be saved. The Harvest is here. Revival is here. The Final Testament is here. Repent and believe on the name of Christ. Everyone in the end gets forgiveness. Even the non-elect.
I feel like he did not explain in enough detail the phrase "All People." I would like to know what exactly all people is referring to since I know it does not refer to literally every single human alive.
Hey my friend, I think he did in detail. I find that sometimes I begin to get the main point off teachings/meditations like this when I watch it again. It might help to watch it again, if you haven't. But basically, God's saving and redeeming grace has been made available to all people (that is every single person on earth) long before anything was made/created. But that grace becomes active in all us who believe. The grace becomes active in us by teaching us to (Titus 2:11) renounce ungodliness, worldly passions, teaching us to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in our time, as we eagerly await the second coming of Jesus. I hope this helps friend.
“προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ” (Titus 2:13) How should these words be rendered into English? There are two main readings: Those, like the King James Version, refer these words to Two Persons: "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God, and our Sauiour Iesus Christ” (1611) The Revised Version of 1881, refers the words to One Person, Jesus Christ: “looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ” There is a third, which is the literal reading of the Greek text: “looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and Saviour of us Jesus Christ” The genitive, “ἡμῶν”, can be translated as “of us”, as it can be in other places, like Galatians 1:4, where the literal reading of the Greek, “τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν”, is, “the will of the God and Father of us” In the first place, if Paul had written, “τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”, there would be no problem in it being translated as , “the Glory of our Great Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”, and referring all the words to One Person, Jesus Christ. It is only because some reject that Jesus Christ, IS called here “The Great God”; and others, who are “Evangelical” Christians, hesitate to use this for Jesus, that there is any discussion on this verse. In Isaiah 9:6, one of the Names for Jesus Christ, in the Prophetic passage, is “אֵל גִּבּוֹר”, which is, “Mighty God”. Here also, some have tried to remove any reference to the Deity of Jesus Christ, by translating the words, “Mighty chief” (Ibn Ezra, 12th century); “The Mighty God is planning grace” (JPS. 1999), etc,. However, the same Hebrew, “אֵל גִּבּוֹר”, is used in Isaiah 10:21, for Yahweh, and it is always translated, even by Ibn Ezra, and the JPS version, by “mighty God”. In fact, the Jewish Targum, reads in Isaiah 9:6, “the mighty God who liveth to eternity, the Messiah” (www.sefaria.org/Targum_Jonathan_on_Isaiah.9.5?lang=bi&with=all&lang2=en). This is a Jewish translation, and the passage is Messianic, and reads, “the mighty God”. Manuscripts of the LXX Greek Old Testament, read, “Θεὸς ἰσχυρός”, which is, “God Mighty”. Even the Jehovah’s Witnesses (JW’s) read “Mighty God”! Why do some say that the Apostle Paul could not call Jesus Christ, “the Great God”, when it is exactly what the Prophet Isaiah says of Jesus Christ? In Acts 20:28, we have the Apostle Paul say, “the Church of the God (του θεου), which He has purchased with His own blood”. Clear reference to Jesus Christ as God, Who died on the cross. This cannot refer to the Father. In the natural reading of Romans 9:5, “Christ Who is over all God blessed for ever. Amen”, Paul again calls Jesus Christ God. In Romans 10:13, Paul says, “For whosoever shall call upon the Name of the Lord shall be saved”. Which is from Joel 2:32, “And it shall come to pass, whosoever shall call on the name of Yahweh shall be delivered” The Greek Version, the Septuagint, reads, “ And it shall come to pass that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved”. Clearly in Romans, Paul uses the verse from Joel, which is about Yahweh, for Jesus Christ. In 1 Corinthians 10:9, again Paul says, “Neither let us tempt the Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents”. This also is a reference to the Old Testament, Numbers 21:6, “And Yahweh sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died”, which Paul uses for Jesus Christ. Then, in Philippians 2:6, Paul says of Jesus Christ, “Who is from eternity (ὑπάρχων) in the very nature of God”. Which is what he also says in Colossians 2:9, “For in Him dwells (κατοικει, continually) all the fullness of the Deity (θεότης, “deity i. e. the state of being God, Godhead”, Thayer Greek lexicon) bodily”. Can any doubt that Paul taught that Jesus Christ IS Yahweh, The Almighty God? 2 Timothy 4:1 is very similar to Titus 2:13 “Διαμαρτύρομαι ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ τοῦ μέλλοντος κρίνειν ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς, καὶ τὴν ἐπιφάνειαν αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ” “I charge you in the presence of the God and Christ Jesus, Who is about to Judge the living and the dead, and by His Appearing and His Kingdom” Here, “τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”, refers to one Person, Jesus Christ, Who is called God. “τοῦ μέλλοντος κρίνειν”, Singular, “Who is about to Judge”. Like Titus, here Paul also speaks of the “ἐπιφάνειαν (Appearance)” of Jesus Christ. Also it is “βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ”, again in the singular, “His Kingdom”, all referring to Jesus Christ. The particle “καὶ” is used in the sense as “even”, connecting “God” with “Christ Jesus”. In 2 Peter 1:1, again we read, “του θεου ημων και σωτηρος ιησου χριστου”. Which is, “our God and Saviour Jesus Christ”, One Person Who is “God and Saviour”. In verse 11 it reads, “του κυριου ημων και σωτηρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”, as it does in 2:20 “του κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”. And in 3:18, “του κυριου ημων και σωτηρος ιησου χριστου”. The first, “of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. The second, “of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. And the third, “of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. In the first and third readings, the words are almost identical to 1:1, the ONLY difference being, “θεου” is in 1:1, and the others read, “κυρίου”. The Jehovah’s Witnesses translate 2 Peter 1:1, “"of our God and [the] Saviour Jesus Christ" (Kingdom Interlinear). “the” is in brackets so not in the Greek. And in the Emphatic Diaglott, “of our God and Savior Jesus Christ”. Again, clear testimony to the Deity of Jesus Christ. In the Unitarian New Testament by George Noyes, 2 Peter 1:1, reads, “of our God, and the Saviour Jesus Christ”. Yet in the other three places, it reads as I have given the English above. The JW’ are the same here. I mention this because it is important to see how the Word of God is twisted by those who oppose the Bible’s Teaching on the Deity of Jesus Christ. Not because of what the Bible actually teaches, but for their theology. There are some, who do not accept that this verse is about Jesus Christ, who argue, that this “Appearing”, is only of Jesus in the sense that He will Come in “τῆς δόξης” (the Glory), of the Father, and apply “τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ” (the Great God), to the Father. In Matthew 16:27, Jesus Himself says, “For the Son of man shall Come in the Glory of His Father”. Paul does not say in Titus 2:13, “τοῦ μεγάλου πατρος” (the Glory of the Father), which would have removed any ambiguity. Even if we were to accept that Paul does mean, that “τῆς δόξης”, is that of “the Father”, in what sense are we to understand this? Surely this must mean that God the Father, and Jesus Christ, share in the one same Glory. Whether we understand “τῆς δόξης”, as referring to, “Honour, Renown, Glory”; or, to “ Shekinah Glory”, the “Splendor”, by which Yahweh Appeared in the Old Testament. This would make Jesus Christ as COEQUAL with the Father, and prove His Deity. In John 17:5, Jesus says, “And now, O Father, Glorify You Me with (πᾰρά, alongside) Your own self with the Glory ( τη δοξη) which I had (ειχον, always had) with (πᾰρά, alongside) You before the world existed”. The “Glory” of the Father and Jesus Christ has from eternity past, been EQUAL, and the SAME. In Hebrews 1:3, we read of Jesus Christ, “ος ων απαυγασμα της δοξης”, “Who being (always) the Effulgence of The Glory”, not (His Glory as in some Versions, which is not in the Greek). In Isaiah 42:8, we read, “I am Yahweh, that is My Name; I will not give My Glory to another, Nor My praise to idols”. For Jesus Christ to have the SAME Glory as the Father, can only mean that He is Almighty God. In Revelation 5:13, it says about the Father and Jesus Christ, that ALL “The Blessing, and The Honor, and The Glory (η δοξα), and The Power”, belong to BOTH. And in the next verse, They are BOTH Worshipped. The language of Titus is clear to the Deity of Jesus Christ. Had the Apostle Paul wished to show that “the Great God” refers to “God the Father”, and “our Saviour” to “Jesus Christ”. He would have made this very clear, where there can be no doubt in the Greek, by writing, “τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”. By using the Greek article “τοῦ” with “σωτῆρος” (Saviour), he would have clearly shown the distinction of the Two Persons. Only those who cannot accept that the Bible does, in many places, Teach the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, will have problems with these verses, and translate and understand them according to their theology, and not as the Bible teaches.
May i be permitted to state that in the book of psalms the Loving Kindness and The Redemptive Power of Jesus Christ who is The Only Begotten Son of The Most High God is also mentioned psalm 32 to be exact?
No its BRINGING salvation- not "offering". Two different things. And why " to ALL people... ? BECOUSE Christ died for ALL people. ❤️ Prayers to all of you.....
Lea Sand sorry to say but Christ didn’t die for EVERYONE. Unconditional Election. John 3:16. ““For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever BELIEVES in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.”
This is just one of many examples of 'twisting' the scriptures! Look! I am not a JW but I read & study the bible! Tit 2:13 is NOT speaking of ONE but two SEPERATE persons! Read the intro "Paul a servant of God AND an apostle of Jesus Christ" ( KJV) TWO, not One persons mentioned! Paul frequenly blessings in his epistles at 2 Cor 1:3, Col 1:3, Eph 1;3 all read "Blessed be the God AND FATHER OF the Lord Jesus Christ". Paul then obviously did NOT call Jesus God for he stated "The head of Christ is GOD" ( 1 Cor 11:3. Amen!
I think you just pointed out how there are three persons but one God. Jesus said I and the Father are one (John 10:30). so you have to figure out if they are separate and how are they also one. secondly, Jesus was clearly worshiped by his apostles (Matthew 28:17). If God and only God is to be worshiped (Exodus 20:1-4) then this is breaking God's commands and Jesus would have told them to stop. he did not. The Bible is very clear that Jesus is God incarnate. Paul introducing himself in that way (servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ) was simply his way of establishing his position in the early church. He is a slave to God, but God has also placed him with the same authority as the other apostles had, being an eyewitness to Jesus who is God made flesh
@@joshanderson7211 Please consider the real MEANING of bible words! ( I use a greek dictionary of NT words by W.e.Vine! Very helpful. as for the word WORSHIP, it comes from a greek word PROSKUNEO where we get to 'prostrate'. It literally means to 'bow down', to show reverence for, obecience, worship, to render homage'. To, God, Christ, & men (See Matt 18:26. )Thus it is totally correct that we should 'worship Christ', no problem, and give him the honor he deserves for being Gods Son & laying down his life for us and sitting now at God's right hand in glory! Yet who made it possible? who "gave His only begotten Son" for us? Who therefore loved us SO MUCH? (John 3:16). Thus Paul gives us the BALANCED view ""And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER" (Phil 2:11) Jesus himself directed us to WORSHIP THE FATHER in spirit & truth" (John 4:23,24) Amen, Praise the Almighty Creaotor of heaven & earth, as Jesus has taught us and does so himself! ( rev 15:3)
@@joshanderson7211 Again you 'cherry pick' bible verses! So did Jesus claim to BE his Father? No he did not. John 10:30 is so oftn missquoted. Look go on to chapter 17, Jesus prayer at the last supper; Jesus looked up to heaven & implored his Father "That they all maybe ONE as thou Fathe rart in me! and I in theee. that thy also MAYBE ONE IN US..". Get the point! just as we are not ONE person or being, but different disciples made 'ONE' in UNITY of love & purpose! That God & Jesus are to completely SEPERATE beings, On the FATHER, the other His OBEDIENT & TRUSTED & LOYAL SON! Read Pauls intro to several of his letters; 2 Cor 1:3, Eph 1:3, "BLESSED BE THE GOD AND FATHER OF THE LORD JESUS CHRIST". Clear & final! "
Looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,
🙏 SHALOM 🙏
🙏Glory To God. Amen 🌷
🙏 Praise The Lord. Amen 🌷
🙏 Thank You Jesus. Amen 🌷
What a way to begin your morning. Oh Lord, who can understand your ways?
Glorious in all your ways!!!
Hallelujah!
I am listening to this at 6.50 a.m. to begin 🌞, God bless you!
'Woah! Before the ages began; that's before creation!' --- I love that!
I love how excited Johnny-P gets when he exposits God's Word! We all need that passion!
I love the way you break down scripture! Food for my soul. Thank you and God bless you!
It's incredible the way John explains this passage, I love hearing.
I am an ELCA Lutheran from South Carolina. Today is December 24. It is Christmas Eve. This passage from the Book of Titus will most likely be read in churches tonight. And here is hoping that everyone reading this has a Merry Christmas.
Thank you! This is so rich!
Keep up the great videos!!
This video are pure blessings to me, keep doing them ! God bless you pastor
This is so beautiful and what you have pointed out, God is so good to us to see we are taken care of completely ♥We are so blessed♥ Your teaching is a number 1♡blessing!Thank you♡
help me alot, thanks
John 1:14-17 depicts Jesus Christ as the expression of the Grace of God.
Woe unto the one that perverts the word of God. Stop sinning and obey. This is our call.
Genesis 4:7 KJV
If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him.
Do well! Go and sin no more. John 5:14
Anyone knows why piper refers to 1 and 2 timothy quite a lot? is it because those letters are supposed to be read together ? any significance? :)
No, Grace is here. Now. On earth. All scripture is prophecy written to us in the very last times. Right now, all who call upon the name of the Lord will be saved. The Harvest is here. Revival is here. The Final Testament is here. Repent and believe on the name of Christ. Everyone in the end gets forgiveness. Even the non-elect.
Hey everyone! Does anyone know what bible version is Piper using? :)
I feel like he did not explain in enough detail the phrase "All People." I would like to know what exactly all people is referring to since I know it does not refer to literally every single human alive.
Hey my friend, I think he did in detail. I find that sometimes I begin to get the main point off teachings/meditations like this when I watch it again.
It might help to watch it again, if you haven't.
But basically, God's saving and redeeming grace has been made available to all people (that is every single person on earth) long before anything was made/created. But that grace becomes active in all us who believe.
The grace becomes active in us by teaching us to (Titus 2:11) renounce ungodliness, worldly passions, teaching us to live self-controlled, upright and godly lives in our time, as we eagerly await the second coming of Jesus.
I hope this helps friend.
“προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ” (Titus 2:13)
How should these words be rendered into English? There are two main readings:
Those, like the King James Version, refer these words to Two Persons:
"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God, and our Sauiour Iesus Christ” (1611)
The Revised Version of 1881, refers the words to One Person, Jesus Christ:
“looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ”
There is a third, which is the literal reading of the Greek text:
“looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and Saviour of us Jesus Christ”
The genitive, “ἡμῶν”, can be translated as “of us”, as it can be in other places, like Galatians 1:4, where the literal reading of the Greek, “τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν”, is, “the will of the God and Father of us”
In the first place, if Paul had written, “τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”, there would be no problem in it being translated as , “the Glory of our Great Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”, and referring all the words to One Person, Jesus Christ. It is only because some reject that Jesus Christ, IS called here “The Great God”; and others, who are “Evangelical” Christians, hesitate to use this for Jesus, that there is any discussion on this verse. In Isaiah 9:6, one of the Names for Jesus Christ, in the Prophetic passage, is “אֵל גִּבּוֹר”, which is, “Mighty God”. Here also, some have tried to remove any reference to the Deity of Jesus Christ, by translating the words, “Mighty chief” (Ibn Ezra, 12th century); “The Mighty God is planning grace” (JPS. 1999), etc,. However, the same Hebrew, “אֵל גִּבּוֹר”, is used in Isaiah 10:21, for Yahweh, and it is always translated, even by Ibn Ezra, and the JPS version, by “mighty God”. In fact, the Jewish Targum, reads in Isaiah 9:6, “the mighty God who liveth to eternity, the Messiah” (www.sefaria.org/Targum_Jonathan_on_Isaiah.9.5?lang=bi&with=all&lang2=en). This is a Jewish translation, and the passage is Messianic, and reads, “the mighty God”. Manuscripts of the LXX Greek Old Testament, read, “Θεὸς ἰσχυρός”, which is, “God Mighty”. Even the Jehovah’s Witnesses (JW’s) read “Mighty God”! Why do some say that the Apostle Paul could not call Jesus Christ, “the Great God”, when it is exactly what the Prophet Isaiah says of Jesus Christ?
In Acts 20:28, we have the Apostle Paul say, “the Church of the God (του θεου), which He has purchased with His own blood”. Clear reference to Jesus Christ as God, Who died on the cross. This cannot refer to the Father. In the natural reading of Romans 9:5, “Christ Who is over all God blessed for ever. Amen”, Paul again calls Jesus Christ God. In Romans 10:13, Paul says, “For whosoever shall call upon the Name of the Lord shall be saved”. Which is from Joel 2:32, “And it shall come to pass, whosoever shall call on the name of Yahweh shall be delivered” The Greek Version, the Septuagint, reads, “ And it shall come to pass that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved”. Clearly in Romans, Paul uses the verse from Joel, which is about Yahweh, for Jesus Christ. In 1 Corinthians 10:9, again Paul says, “Neither let us tempt the Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents”. This also is a reference to the Old Testament, Numbers 21:6, “And Yahweh sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died”, which Paul uses for Jesus Christ. Then, in Philippians 2:6, Paul says of Jesus Christ, “Who is from eternity (ὑπάρχων) in the very nature of God”. Which is what he also says in Colossians 2:9, “For in Him dwells (κατοικει, continually) all the fullness of the Deity (θεότης, “deity i. e. the state of being God, Godhead”, Thayer Greek lexicon) bodily”. Can any doubt that Paul taught that Jesus Christ IS Yahweh, The Almighty God?
2 Timothy 4:1 is very similar to Titus 2:13
“Διαμαρτύρομαι ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ τοῦ μέλλοντος κρίνειν ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς, καὶ τὴν ἐπιφάνειαν αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ”
“I charge you in the presence of the God and Christ Jesus, Who is about to Judge the living and the dead, and by His Appearing and His Kingdom”
Here, “τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”, refers to one Person, Jesus Christ, Who is called God. “τοῦ μέλλοντος κρίνειν”, Singular, “Who is about to Judge”. Like Titus, here Paul also speaks of the “ἐπιφάνειαν (Appearance)” of Jesus Christ. Also it is “βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ”, again in the singular, “His Kingdom”, all referring to Jesus Christ. The particle “καὶ” is used in the sense as “even”, connecting “God” with “Christ Jesus”.
In 2 Peter 1:1, again we read, “του θεου ημων και σωτηρος ιησου χριστου”. Which is, “our God and Saviour Jesus Christ”, One Person Who is “God and Saviour”. In verse 11 it reads, “του κυριου ημων και σωτηρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”, as it does in 2:20 “του κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ”. And in 3:18, “του κυριου ημων και σωτηρος ιησου χριστου”. The first, “of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. The second, “of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. And the third, “of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”. In the first and third readings, the words are almost identical to 1:1, the ONLY difference being, “θεου” is in 1:1, and the others read, “κυρίου”.
The Jehovah’s Witnesses translate 2 Peter 1:1, “"of our God and [the] Saviour Jesus Christ" (Kingdom Interlinear). “the” is in brackets so not in the Greek. And in the Emphatic Diaglott, “of our God and Savior Jesus Christ”. Again, clear testimony to the Deity of Jesus Christ. In the Unitarian New Testament by George Noyes, 2 Peter 1:1, reads, “of our God, and the Saviour Jesus Christ”. Yet in the other three places, it reads as I have given the English above. The JW’ are the same here. I mention this because it is important to see how the Word of God is twisted by those who oppose the Bible’s Teaching on the Deity of Jesus Christ. Not because of what the Bible actually teaches, but for their theology.
There are some, who do not accept that this verse is about Jesus Christ, who argue, that this “Appearing”, is only of Jesus in the sense that He will Come in “τῆς δόξης” (the Glory), of the Father, and apply “τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ” (the Great God), to the Father. In Matthew 16:27, Jesus Himself says, “For the Son of man shall Come in the Glory of His Father”. Paul does not say in Titus 2:13, “τοῦ μεγάλου πατρος” (the Glory of the Father), which would have removed any ambiguity. Even if we were to accept that Paul does mean, that “τῆς δόξης”, is that of “the Father”, in what sense are we to understand this? Surely this must mean that God the Father, and Jesus Christ, share in the one same Glory. Whether we understand “τῆς δόξης”, as referring to, “Honour, Renown, Glory”; or, to “ Shekinah Glory”, the “Splendor”, by which Yahweh Appeared in the Old Testament. This would make Jesus Christ as COEQUAL with the Father, and prove His Deity. In John 17:5, Jesus says, “And now, O Father, Glorify You Me with (πᾰρά, alongside) Your own self with the Glory ( τη δοξη) which I had (ειχον, always had) with (πᾰρά, alongside) You before the world existed”. The “Glory” of the Father and Jesus Christ has from eternity past, been EQUAL, and the SAME. In Hebrews 1:3, we read of Jesus Christ, “ος ων απαυγασμα της δοξης”, “Who being (always) the Effulgence of The Glory”, not (His Glory as in some Versions, which is not in the Greek). In Isaiah 42:8, we read, “I am Yahweh, that is My Name; I will not give My Glory to another, Nor My praise to idols”. For Jesus Christ to have the SAME Glory as the Father, can only mean that He is Almighty God. In Revelation 5:13, it says about the Father and Jesus Christ, that ALL “The Blessing, and The Honor, and The Glory (η δοξα), and The Power”, belong to BOTH. And in the next verse, They are BOTH Worshipped. The language of Titus is clear to the Deity of Jesus Christ.
Had the Apostle Paul wished to show that “the Great God” refers to “God the Father”, and “our Saviour” to “Jesus Christ”. He would have made this very clear, where there can be no doubt in the Greek, by writing, “τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”. By using the Greek article “τοῦ” with “σωτῆρος” (Saviour), he would have clearly shown the distinction of the Two Persons.
Only those who cannot accept that the Bible does, in many places, Teach the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, will have problems with these verses, and translate and understand them according to their theology, and not as the Bible teaches.
May i be permitted to state that in the book of psalms the Loving Kindness and The Redemptive Power of Jesus Christ who is The Only Begotten Son of The Most High God is also mentioned psalm 32 to be exact?
The Grace of God is Built Right into Jesus Commandments. Why do you Not teach what Jesus Said?
What does that mean?
No its BRINGING salvation- not "offering". Two different things. And why " to ALL people... ? BECOUSE Christ died for ALL people. ❤️ Prayers to all of you.....
Lea Sand sorry to say but Christ didn’t die for EVERYONE.
Unconditional Election.
John 3:16. ““For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever BELIEVES in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.”
This is just one of many examples of 'twisting' the scriptures! Look! I am not a JW but I read & study the bible! Tit 2:13 is NOT speaking of ONE but two SEPERATE persons! Read the intro "Paul a servant of God AND an apostle of Jesus Christ" ( KJV) TWO, not One persons mentioned! Paul frequenly blessings in his epistles at 2 Cor 1:3, Col 1:3, Eph 1;3 all read "Blessed be the God AND FATHER OF the Lord Jesus Christ". Paul then obviously did NOT call Jesus God for he stated "The head of Christ is GOD" ( 1 Cor 11:3. Amen!
I think you just pointed out how there are three persons but one God. Jesus said I and the Father are one (John 10:30). so you have to figure out if they are separate and how are they also one. secondly, Jesus was clearly worshiped by his apostles (Matthew 28:17). If God and only God is to be worshiped (Exodus 20:1-4) then this is breaking God's commands and Jesus would have told them to stop. he did not. The Bible is very clear that Jesus is God incarnate. Paul introducing himself in that way (servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ) was simply his way of establishing his position in the early church. He is a slave to God, but God has also placed him with the same authority as the other apostles had, being an eyewitness to Jesus who is God made flesh
@@joshanderson7211 Please consider the real MEANING of bible words! ( I use a greek dictionary of NT words by W.e.Vine! Very helpful. as for the word WORSHIP, it comes from a greek word PROSKUNEO where we get to 'prostrate'. It literally means to 'bow down', to show reverence for, obecience, worship, to render homage'. To, God, Christ, & men (See Matt 18:26. )Thus it is totally correct that we should 'worship Christ', no problem, and give him the honor he deserves for being Gods Son & laying down his life for us and sitting now at God's right hand in glory! Yet who made it possible? who "gave His only begotten Son" for us? Who therefore loved us SO MUCH? (John 3:16). Thus Paul gives us the BALANCED view ""And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER" (Phil 2:11) Jesus himself directed us to WORSHIP THE FATHER in spirit & truth" (John 4:23,24) Amen, Praise the Almighty Creaotor of heaven & earth, as Jesus has taught us and does so himself! ( rev 15:3)
@@joshanderson7211 Again you 'cherry pick' bible verses! So did Jesus claim to BE his Father? No he did not. John 10:30 is so oftn missquoted. Look go on to chapter 17, Jesus prayer at the last supper; Jesus looked up to heaven & implored his Father "That they all maybe ONE as thou Fathe rart in me! and I in theee. that thy also MAYBE ONE IN US..". Get the point! just as we are not ONE person or being, but different disciples made 'ONE' in UNITY of love & purpose! That God & Jesus are to completely SEPERATE beings, On the FATHER, the other His OBEDIENT & TRUSTED & LOYAL SON! Read Pauls intro to several of his letters; 2 Cor 1:3, Eph 1:3, "BLESSED BE THE GOD AND FATHER OF THE LORD JESUS CHRIST". Clear & final!
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