What is the Package Deal Fallacy?

An explanation of the Package Deal Fallacy, a combination of the fallacy of correlation always implying causation and the problem of induction.
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Information for this video gathered from The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, The Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy, The Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy, The Oxford Dictionary of Philosophy, The Oxford Companion to Philosophy, The Routledge Encyclopedia of Philosophy, The Collier-MacMillan Encyclopedia of Philosophy, the Dictionary of Continental Philosophy, and more!

[@allank8497]

this is everywhere in socialism vs capitalism debates

[@nosteinnogate7305]

Probably because its economics and economics is very complex.

[@robmann400]

Have you ever noticed that Clark always seems to disappear just before Superman shows up?

[@Opposite271]

It seems only fallacious if one interprets such a argument as a infallible proof or as a deductive argument. If it is only meant to increase the likelihood for causation then this argument might still be acceptable.
Also it seems like that this assumes a counterfactual view of causation. Although a regularity view might still deal with the problem of induction.

[@Lamster66]

Damn and I thought this was the assumption that a car with unlimited mileage would be included in the price :(
Seriously though most employers commit this fallacy in assuming that manual workers and low intelligence are a package deal!

[@RecapSensei-vn3xh]

Claiming that someone who enjoys painting must also be a terrible chef is a package deal fallacy, as artistic talent in one domain doesn't necessarily correlate with culinary skills.

[@InventiveHarvest]

I see philosophers committing this fallacy a lot. They call it modus ponens.

[@AlbertKamut]

I learned in undergrad that it isn’t always a fallacy and philosophy generally accepts it as a valid form of argument.
I hadn’t considered how often ponens and tollens could be misused! Good catch :)

[@nosteinnogate7305]

No. Modus ponens is premised on the fact that A->B holds. If it doesnt, like the package fallacy could establish, then modus ponens doesnt even get to be used.

[@InventiveHarvest]

@@nosteinnogate7305 the package fallacy is also premised on the fact that A->B holds. The lesson here is that premises are not always true.

[@nosteinnogate7305]

@@InventiveHarvest No. The package fallacy shows it is fallacious to assume A->B holds from (a few) (A and B)-observations.

[@InventiveHarvest]

@@nosteinnogate7305 How many observations does modus ponens require?