Why the Genealogy of Jesus Actually Matters
Vložit
- čas přidán 16. 12. 2020
- Becket Ghioto, Director of Digital Outreach, reflects on the readings for Thursday, December 17, 2020. Watch till the end to see a quick guest appearance! Don't forget to like this video and subscribe to this channel! Your support means the world to us!
GN 49:2, 8-10
PS 72:1-2, 3-4AB, 7-8, 17
MT 1:1-17
Dr. Bergsma's video on Genealogy can be be viewed at • Which genealogy is cor...
Well done, Becket! Thank you!
Truly inspired by this presentation. Thank you! ❤️
Thank you very much for the reflection.
Could you put the video of Dr. Bergsma comparing the genealogies of Matthew and Luke? I have searched and cannot find it. Becket refers to it and suggests it today which is why I ask. Thank you in advance.
I also searched and could not find it. Please post a link...Thanks!!!!
St. Paul's Center listened to your comment. They recently uploaded a video on Dr. Bergma's take on Jesus' genealogy.
We put a link in this video's description. Check it out! Dr. Bergsma's explanation is illuminating!
We put a link in this video's description.
😱Wow...soooo good!💖💖💖
Amen, thank you.
Hi. Following up on the adoption of a son-in-law... is there a source that I can refer to?
I don't know if I buy this Heli = Joachim. But he's in my genealogy, and not the only connection to Mary.
The genealogies in Matthew & Luke do not conflict or contradict. They are of 2 people, Mary & Joseph. The genealogy in Matthew, from David to Jacob-Heli (spanning about 1000 years), contains 27 generations of 40 years each, so as to comply with the 40 year royal generational standard. Luke, on the other hand, gives 40 generations of a more comprehensible 25 years each. Hence, Luke places Jesus in the 20th generation from Zerubbabel, whereas Matthew places him in the 11th generation from Zerubbabel. SUMMARY: Matthew---27 generations of 40 years from Solomon. Patriarchal--Zerubbabel's father's line. Luke---40 generations of 25 years. Matriarchal--Zerubbales mother's line. Solomon & Nathan were both sons of David. Their lines converge at Zerubbabel rhen diverge. Zerubbabel had two sons, Abiud & Rhesa. Matthew goes from Abiud, Mary's line. Luke goes from Rhesa, Joseph's line. Mary and Joseph were also related. Joseph was Mary's great-aunt Gadat's son. Mary's 'mother was Hannah. Her father was Joachim (Yonakhir) the Elias patriarch. Joseph's mother was Gadat. His father was Heli, the Jacob patriarch. His community distinction was Jacob. His title was Jacob, so,he would be called Jacob-Heli. Joachim's mother was Sabartia (Sabrath). Joachim's father was Matthat the Zadok. Heli's father was Matthan (descended from Mattathias (Tobias) the Temple governor. Joseph was the biological father of Jesus. In Matthew's version, Mary was found pregnant by the 'Holy Spirit' (pneuma hagion), a title of Joseph in the celibate state, during his betrothal period. Essenes used dynastic marriage for all the dynastic lines; priests & kings. Dynastic marriages had a 3 year probationary period. If the woman did not have a child in those 3 years, the man was allowed to leave her & find someone else. Dynastic marriage was celebrated in 4 steps. The betrothal ceremony was held in June of rhe man's 36 year (a man was required to,have a son on or around his 40th birthday). In the royal month of September the couple would celebrate the first marriage, the beginning of the 3 year probationary period. The woman would prepare a banquet for her husband and anoint his head & feet with oil. She would wipe his feet during the 'wiping of the feet 'ceremony. She would wipe them, not with her hair, that's a mistranslation. She would use a veil called a thrix. It was also called 'a hair'. The oil used by royalty for anointing was spikenard; its usage was Syrian in origin. The woman would also weep for her husband. In Decemhber, the couple would be allowed to come together for marital relations. Hopefully, conception would take place. If it did not, the couple would live apart & remain celibate until the next December. When conception did take place, & if there were no problems or loss of pregnancy, the couple were required to go before the Gabriel, the Abiathar Priest for sanctioning of the pregnancy. If it was sanctioned, then in March the couple would celebrate the 2d marriage; the binding one. Again the woman would prepare a banquet for her husband & anoint his head & feet with spikenard. In the royal month of September the child would be born. Any time the couple had a girl, they were required to remain celibate for 3 years before they could come together again. It would be in December of the 3d year. If the couple had a boy, they were required to remain celibate for 6 years, before coming together again in December of the 6th year. Mary & Joseph knew the rules of procreation of dynastic marriage, but they broke them so that Jesus was born at the wrong time; Sunday, March 1, 7BC, instead of September. Mary & Joseph came together in June sometime after the betrothal ceremony, instead of waiting until December. If Joseph had followed the stricter rule of dynastic marriage, he would break off the betrothal, leaving the child to be brought up as one of the orphans adopted by Essenes. He was advised by Gabriel, the Abiathar priest (Simeon, Simon the Essene) to take the intermediate way; to marry Mary, l.eaving both of them in an honorable state, but to treat the child as the son of Mary, not his. Joseph went through the wedding ceremony, combining both weddings of the Essenes, the 1st one allowing sex, the 2d one when the woman was 3 months pregnant. Since there was a rule that there must be no intercourse during pregnancy 'he knew her not'. There were 4 classes of woman in Qumran: Mother, Virgin, Widow, Wife. Mother & Virgin were the 2 highest ranks & Widow & Wife were the 2 lowest. A woman was required to be a physical virgin when she married, & she would also be of the rank of Virgin. When she had been pregnant for 6 months, she wou,d be promoted to the rank of Mother. Mary was not promoted unti later, so she was still at the rank of Virgin when she became pregnant, so 'a Virgin conceived'. Same with the birth--'Virgin birth'. This all should clarify any misunderstandings.
Joseph's virginity is to be considered in the marriage with the Blessed Virgin, yes? Otherwise, some theories that he was married before would fall, wouldn't they?
Joseph did not have children prior to his marriage to Mary. The record shows that All of Josephs and Marys children have royalty and their descendants. This can ONLY happen if these children are born after Joseph's marriage to Mary, not before. Before Joseph was married to Mary, his inheritance was of the Luke lineage, a descendant of the non-royal line down throught from Nathan/David. When Joseph married Mary, he inherited royal rights from Mary's father (Matthew lineage) under the Mosaic statute in Numbers 36. Thus Jesus and any subsequent children held those same rights. There is many records showing their children's descendant's making claims to Davidic Kingship. This was how it was possible.
Please source what you are asserting. Luke is interpreted as either Mary was of Davidic lineage, or both Mary and Joseph. a tradition also says the brothers of Jesus were Joseph's children (still held by some Catholics and Orthodox). Matthew is said to be about Joseph legal lineage. Therefore I ask you to source first. We will see afterwards.
Where is that Bergsma explanation?! Thanks Beckett
We put a link in this video's description. Check it out! Dr. Bergsma's explanation is illuminating!
Baller thanks!!
Based on the principle of Isaiah 28:10, a prophecy of (4) certain families mourning at Christ's crucifixion in Zechariah 12:12 - 13, I believe identifies the parental lineages of Jesus the Christ. The 'House of David' & the 'House of Nathan' (from the Matthew & Luke genealogies) would be of Joseph's father & mother, respectively; and The 'House of Levi' & the 'family of Shimei" would be of Mary's father & mother, respectively.
A.K. Emmerich in own private "revelations" says, something like, that in this way, people were supposed to appear "on this world", before the first sin.
What do you and what does she mean by that? Humans were on this world before the first sin.
Heli (or Joachim) cannot be Mary's father. There is no royalty in that line back to Nathan/David. Indeed, these genealogies are very important, because we need to know both Mary's and Joseph's lineage in order for the royalty to be transfered from Mary's Father to her Husband. It is now know that Matthew 1:16 has a scribal error. It shoud read "Joseph FATHER of Mary". This adds a generation and fixes the generational miscount so many think Matthew made. Knowing Matthew 1 is Mary's lineage, proves she is of the tribe of Judah. And Luke 3 being her husbands line, proves he is also from the same tribe. It is very important to know both are from the same tribe, so that Numbers 36 can be applied, in order for Mary's inheritance (Royalty)to be tranferred to her husband and in turn to Jesus.
Best and clearest explanation! Enlightening, thanks!
liked the other video ''Which genealogy is correct'' very much. It is very informative, and true to Tradition. In your video here, however, you espouse a non-traditional hypothesis, namely, that St. Joseph had not been married and had children before his marraige to the Blessed Virgin, even that he was a ''virgin''. Calling St. Joseph the virginal father of our Lord is untraditional, and incorrect. St. Joseph was the LEGAL FATHER of our Lord. St. Joseph , according to the most ancient christian tradition had children by his first marriage and thus could not have been ever-virgin as you seem to state. The Church officially only refers to him as ''Spouse of the most Blessed Virgin'', and in devitonal literature as Foster-Father or putative father (Padre putativo, in italiano), but never as Virginal Father, which is an unhistorical, anti-traditional novelty.
It is true that Joseph was not the adoptive father of Jesus, he was - as the husband of the mother - his legal father and thus is repeatedly called Jesus's father in the gospels.
But there's no need to claim Joseph was "virginal" for that. Not saying that je was or wasn't but there is no evidence for such a claim. Don't errect new bolders.
The Bergsma theory doesn't hold water: the gospels clearly state that Jacob and Heli were fathers of Joseph, not of Mary. No talk of adoption. It is also not permissible to by some tricks to identify Heli with Joachim - Heli cannot be a short form of Joachim just because one particular bad King once changed his name).
How can Joseph have two fathers? Through a levirate marriage.
Matthew 1 IS Mary's lineage. The Joseph in Matthew 1:16 is her FATHER. There is a known scribal error and it should read "Joseph FATHER of Mary '', not husband. This places royalty in Mary's line. And under the Mosaic statue in Numbers 36, when she married Joseph from the Luke 3 lineage, he received the royal inheritance to himself. Thus Jesus and their other children all qualified for the Davidic Kingship.
All the levirate marriage scenarios previously submitted in history, are all executed wrong.
@@leericmarvin Firstly, where's your evidence? Neither genealogy says that it is about Mary. Both point to Joseph.
Secondly, you cannot marry into kingship. Membership im a tribe, clan or family comes through the father, not the mother.
@@leericmarvin It's NOT a "known scribal error". That is complete phantasy.
Thank you for a clear explanation of the genealogy of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Of course the genealogies matter. The gospel is the inspired word of God. If we accept that, we have to admit, God wanted this seeming discrepancy there, as it is. The explanation for this discrepancy is much simpler than many scholars try to invent, yet very shocking, and thus overlooked. One has to take into account whole context of Matthew's and Luke's gospel in regard to Jesus'es birth and his childhood. Then you realize the descriptions differ in much more than in the genealogy.
The explanation is this: There were two different Josephs, two different Marys and even two different Jesus children. The family described by Matthew lived in Betlehem, was visited by the three kings and had to escape to Egypt. The family described by Luke lived in Nazareth and moved to Betlehem only for the census which happened after Herodes died (so they had no reason to escape and simply returned to Nazareth). And no, that doesn't mean there were two messiahs, for later those two became one in certain way (this event is related to Jesus getting lost in Jerusalem and then found in the temple when he was 12 years old). And anyway, God the Son wasn't yet incarnated in either of those two Jesuses when they got born, for he only entered his body when he was 30 years old during the baptism. That's why genealogy that goes all the way back to Adam and God is listed right after baptism, and this is why the voice from heaven is heard only then: "This is my beloved son...". This also explains why Jesus did miracles only after his 30th year. Also this explains the discrepancies regarding Jesus'es siblings. One of them had biological siblings, the other had not.
I didn't invent all this btw. For those who want to study this more deeply, source of this explanation is Rudolf Steiner.
The genealogies matter, because they prove both Mary and Joseph are of the same tribe of Judah, so that the Mosiac statute in Numbers 36 could be applied. Thus Joseph inherits royalty from Mary's father by his marriage to her.
Saint Augustine is wroung, if Mary was in either line she would be under the curse Mary is a daugther of the line of Aaron the Levi. (Luke 1:5-6 ) cousin of Mary. You have a bigger problem how is Jesus a JEW? Shalom
My brothers in humanity ... I want any Christian who knows his religion well ... to answer me only two questions
First one...Jesus spoke about the father and said " this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. John 3:17...so From the Holy Trinity Who is the only true God, Father, Son, Holy Spirit "...? !!
Second: Christ speaks Aramaic and knows Hebrew, and was originally sent to the "sheep of the house of Israel" according to the Bible ... So Are there any Aramaic or Hebrew Bibles, and the current gospels writing time dating back to any century ? !! Are there any manuscripts dating back to the first century of the era of Christ ?! Are the current Gospels considered a revelation from God, or are they just a history of events written by ordinary people ?
@pot as is god the father and god the son same person ?!!!!
@pot as God, according to Christian belief, is made up of three different Persons, between them being differentiation and each person has his own will ...and The father is not the son, even if they are one in the theological nature, as I and you are one in the human nature but we are a different persons ... And any Christian saying that the father is the same as the son is considered according to your beliefe " a heretic " And it called "the heresy of Sabelius"
@pot as first of all ... the writers of the Bible itself have denied themselves that they wrote it as a revelation of god !!!!!
and this is a confession by Luke himself ...
who said in the first chapter in his own Bible
1Inasmuch as many have taken in hand to set in order a narrative of those things which have been fulfilled among us, 2just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word delivered them to us, 3it seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus, 4that you may know the certainty of those things in which you were instructed.
This is an explicit admission that there are dozens of those who wrote the Gospels, all of them authored and not inspired by God ..... and this means that Luke did not take "a revelation" to dictate to him what he writes ... ... Rather, he chose to write when he found many others wrote many gospels ... This means that he did not receive any revelation from God.
It means he writes about what he heard ..... and this confirms For you, the Gospels that are with you now "are not a revelation from God" but are merely a "history of events" and from the author's point of view only ... and it is true that they may contain some facts ... but they will remain in the end just history books made by humans ... and not It is the "Gospel of Christ" that the Qur’an spoke about by God, because simply this gospel no longer exists ..... But this does not negate as I said earlier that these gospels still contain some facts ..
Second ....How can the son be a god if Christ also admitted that "the father" is his god that he worships ......... Read from the "Bible"
Jesus said, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'"
(John 17:20).
Here, Christ says that I ascend to "my God" ... Who is the God of God? !!! So for the second time, Christ says that the one Father is his god, and he himself is our God as well, not the Son or the Holy Spirit.
And how can a father be the son if there is in the kingdom a throne for the father and a throne for the son ... Read from the Bible ..
Look, I see the heavens opened and the Son of Man standing in the place of honor at God's right hand!”
(Acts 7:
and sat down at the right hand of God.
Mark 16:19
So there is the father who sits on the throne, and we find that the son does not sit on the throne, but to the right of the "father" .... Does not the presence of two thrones mean that there are two "separate"? !!!
See also this verse. It is related to redemption .. you find that Christ is begging the Father to save him from suffering..Rather, the verse mentioned the existence of "two different wills."
Luke 22:42: "Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done." (NIV)
So here Christ made it clear that there is a special will for him, which is that he does not want to be tormented and does not want suffering ... And There is another will of the father, which is different of course And we see him asking the "father" to express this cup ... if it is not the will of the son ... but rather he is "asking" the father to put away from him suffering ? !! And the odd one out of that is that the prayer and supplication of Christ was rejected with evidence that he was crucified. So how do you tell me that a "father" is the same as a "son"? !!
To your second question: the Writings collected in the New Testament were written in Greek. If there were any in Hebrew or Aramaic (maybe an early form of Matthew) they are not extant.
As for your first question, the answer is yes. God is the true God. Both the Triune Divine Being as well as each of the three Divine Persons.
Augustine?! SEriously? If you base your understanding of the issues with the 2 genealogies on reading the Greek text you will NEVER GET IT RIGHT. The answer comes by reading the texts in the original Aramaic. Only then will you understand the real answer.
The Aramaic text reading in Matt 1:16 is that Joseph is Kinsman of Mary. Not husband.
@@leericmarvin Actually, no. The reading is that Joseph is the "man" of Mary. The protector or master. "husband" is a totally different word.
You can only base any reading on the Greek text because all four gospels were written in Greek. Any other language version will have to be a translation, including Aramaic.
The interpretation presented above is nevertheless false.
@@str.77 Not true. the original language of the entire New Testament was in Aramaic - not Greek. It is a vast misunderstanding and wrong tradition that Christians accept Greek as the original. There are thousands of examples. Almost every verse in the New Testament points to Aramaic original.
@@jparks6544 So you are one of those reality-deniers that just makes up stuff you like?
No, the NT books we have today was written in Greek. There possibly was an Aramaic proto-Matthew but otherwise, it was all Greek.Why would you write a Letter to the Corinthians in Aramaic? Or a gospel for Romans in Aramaic?
according to jewish law only an unwanted child can be adopred