4.4.1 Susceptibility, Permittivity, Dielectric Constant
Vložit
- čas přidán 13. 09. 2024
- Introducing 3 new constants that apply only in linear dielectrics.
Next: • 4.4.2 Example 7
Previous: • 4.3.2 A Deceptive Para...
Playlist: • Introduction to Electr...
you are teaching me more in one night than my MIT trained professor has in a quarter! thank you and keep making these!
I'm not out to win any popularity contests. No physicist is. ;-)
I'm glad some people are finding these useful.
I should mention that this is an AWESOME question.
That's too much praise. How can I counter that? "No, YOU'RE AWESOMER!"
For all those using the 3rd Ed., "K" is renamed ε-sub-r, I guess because of K's other usages.
These videos are great. You might not have many views, but please keep making them! In the end you're helping a lot of people, including me! :)
now he has almost 40k views!
The wikipedia article on Permittivity uses this notation as well.
Thanks for making these wonderful videos.
However,
Why the Divergence (the rho_b) is simply zero?
Why we didn't bring the dirac delta function in this case?
See section 1.5.1
Thank you , Thank you, thank you! You helped me clear up a lot of doubt!
The function(s) that give P throughout all space has two parts: P = 0 outside the dielectric and P = something not curly (parallel with E) inside. What is P at the boundary? undefined. While the curl of P in both regions is zero, that doesn't mean that the curl of P is zero at the boundary. You have to take d/dx of the y and z, etc, and there's a significant, undefined jump of the y component as you move in the x direction (or whatever)
1) in most notations permittivity and dielectric constant is the same thing
2) E in the first equation for polarization is the TRUE external electric field. D is the field after so-called "feedback"
seriously these videos are really helpful .. thanks a lot for making them :)
Thanks for the lecture. May I ask why the divergent of P is zero ??
+1, i can understand it with logic but I can't with maths.
In case of average polarization, the charge inside the dielectric is zero, because if we take a microscopic volume it contains equal amount of +ve and -ve charges so net charge will be zero, so divergence of polarization will be zero.
yeah these vids are great! Please keep posting!
In example 5, wouldn't the polarization charges of the dielectric change the electric field? making impossible the use of Gauss's law for E?
how do you justify that the curl of P will be infinite at the boundary
Pretty confidently calling the aether theory “nonsense” when human understanding of physics is not complete… Einstein thought that an expanding universe was “nonsense”… lol
Why is the electric field inside the sphere zero?
88donja Because the electric field inside a conductor (metal) at electrostatic equilibrium is always 0. The sphere is a conductor
TheLord1112 well.... the movie maker said that there is a dieletrics sphere@@
i don't really know where are the charges in the problem?
did he mention that?
+shen the charges are out there on the surface on the conductor as well as in the dielectric( from a to b)
Gauss law
Nonesense that Ether is nonesense.