I've never seen anyone analyze sound shifts for non-IE langs, super cool and thanks for sharing!! I REALLY wanna learn Arabic but I'm literally terrified of its difficulty
I don't know where you got the facts for this video but some claims about the Palestinian dialect are either wrong, outdated or apply only to bedouins. For example, it's not the case that Palestinian dialect uses t instead of th often. That's something more associated with Gulf Arabs and Lebanese.
Arabic speaker that grew up with Palestinians here: Most Urban Palestinians from cities like Al-Quds, Jenin, Ramalla, etc. even from cities that were conquered by Israel lost the th and dh sounds. But Rural Palestinians and Bedouin Palestinians didn't lose it. Due to a lot of people from rural areas moving into the city it is now common to hear th and dh in Palestinian cities, but turning them into t and d like in talate for 3 and tum/tom for garlic is common. Also Gulf Arabic NEVER loses th and dh, I have no idea where the hell you made that one up.
Actually crazy how much nonsense and random hate bro’s getting from people who do not understand the concept / study of linguistics; amazing video, keep it up!
In modern Arabic, glottal stop is represented by letter hamzah, ء . The Mehri Arabic dialect has voiceless alveolar lateral fricative, ڛ . I think Tiberian hebrew sounds closer to Arabic.
Well from what I have seen it's sort of variable. So you are right that you could interpret both in Hebrew and Arabic alike that these fricatives are velar. I chose to represent them as uvular simply from my experience as a native Hebrew speaker.
I swear to god people in the commend are spewing the most ridiculous claims I have ever heard, as if Arabic was the only language ever existing in the middle east
At 3:13 It's not clear what did you mean by the voiceless glottal fricative sound (ה / H) "elided" in modern Hebrew?! This is radically untrue! I'm Israeli and this is my native language, I can assure that no native speaker of Israeli Hebrew would ever silence the letter ה. This is such a strange and deceptive claim about Hebrew that giving examples to demonstrate that it's wrong - would be a weird understatement, because it is just ridiculous as claiming that in English that the sound of H is somehow silent. How about: aHavá, HaBáyit HeHarím HaHatzHará, HaHit'Hapkhút, LeHitmaHaMéHa? or this very well-known childhood tongue twister: "Anakhnu lo meHamemaHarim, anakhnu meHamemaHarot"? All the H's above represent the modern Hebrew letter ה and are pronounced EXACTLY the same as H in English, Anyone who claims otherwise has probably never heard Hebrew as it is spoken in Israel today. In fact, a native Hebrew speaker who would pronounce the letter ה in a any other way than Voiceless glottal fricative will be considered to have speech impediment (For example: saying זָב or זָ־אָב, instead of זָהָב = zaHAv as it should be pronounced, otherwise speech-language pathologists make a living from those who have difficulty pronouncing this words or any other with the H sound.) The letter ה in contemporary Hebrew is a consonant! *Only* when it appears at the end of words, it is used as a silent letter - „ה”א שותקת” as we were all taught here in first grade. C'mon, This is all so painfully obvious... It is unfortunate that credible information is tainted by false claims, particularly when presented at such a high level of knowledge.
What is the goal of this video? Pardon me but I’m very confused. Is there a reason you can’t pronounce Arabic words correctly? Your pronunciation was not very good. So I’m really confused by the purpose of this video if you are struggling to speak the languages. Perhaps focus on languages you’re more knowledgeable on? Maybe then the information can be more accurate. Good day.
There is no such thing as (hebrew language). jews after living with the Canaanites, they learned their language/dialect. After that they massacred the Canaanites and changed the name of the Canaanite language/dialect into hebrew. In the book history of Israel by Martin Noth on p. 24 the author says: When the Israelite tribes arrived, however, they still found that the language spoken was the Semitic 'Canaanite', and, like many earlier immigrants, they and their relations adopted this language in place of the probably Aramaic dialect they had spoken previously. This is why you see images in which there is an arrow drawn from Canaanite to hebrew. It basically means that hebrew is derived/stolen from Canaanite. Btw, i'm talking about old hebrew. As for modern hebrew. it's not even the same as old hebrew. It's basically an amalgamation of multiple languages.
According to the archeological record, (and not the Biblical record as I assume you’re taking) Israelites emerged as a group from within the Canaanites. This means that the Israelites were originally Canaanites but then became unique mostly because of their monolatry. So what I’m trying to say is that the language spoken by the Israelites (ancient Jews) was in fact a Canaanite language. Hebrew comes from the Canaanite branch of the semitic language family.
As for your take on Modern Hebrew, I would love to hear what you think the other languages that comprise Hebrew are. The fact of the matter is that modern Hebrew is incredibly similar to ancient Hebrew differing only really in syntax, and of course, vocabulary. Since Hebrew was only used liturgically for thousands of years many words for modern concepts had to be developed. These words were either developed by extrapolating from existing Hebrew root words or from other similar languages like Arabic. Your assessment that modern Hebrew is merely an “amalgamation of other languages” is far from the truth.
Exactly. There is no such thing as 'Hebrew'. It had always been called, for the majority of its history as a spoken language, 'Canaanite'. Steal the land, Steal the language, claim someone else ancestry, claim falafel is yours, claim Hummus is yours, claim our Levantine music as yours. On top of that, 'Jewish History' is all fabricated and made up of thin air. All these 'archeological findings' are propaganda, exaggerated, and clearly mislabeled (if one delves into a serious academic research regarding this matter) & conflated with the Canaanite archetypes found all over the Levant. The whole thing is a mythology advertised as history.
@@cl9615 Ok jew, how can you determine that israelites emerged as a group from within the Canaanites by relying on archeological record? Answer: you can’t.m, unless there is an ancient scroll that says (israelites emerged from Canaanites) and that doesn’t exist. Canaanites/Phoencians are Arabs. The definition of Arab is (a person that is originally from Arabia/Arabian peninsula). Canaanites/Phoenicians were from Bahrain. Bahrain is part of Arabia/Arabian peninsula. This means that Canaanites/Phoenicians are Arabs by definition. Proof: In the book Geography by Strabo translated by Hans Claude Hamilton and William Falconer in book XVI chapter 3 section 4 the author says: On sailing further, there are other islands, Tyre and Aradus, which have temples resembling those of the Phoenicians. The inhabitants of these islands (if we are to believe them) say that the islands and cities bearing the same name as those of the Phoenicians are their own colonies. William Falconer says in the margin: Besides the islands Tyre and Aradus, there existed even in the time of Alexander, and near the present Cape Gherd, a city called Sidon or Sidodona, which was visited by Nearchus, as may be seen in his Periplus. The Phoenician inhabitants of these places appear to have afterwards removed to the western side of the Persian Gulf, and to the islands Bahrain, to which they gave the names Tylos, or Tyre, and Aradus. The latter name still exists; it was from this place that the Phoenicians moved, to establish themselves on the shores of the Mediterranean, and transferred the name of Sidon, their ancient capital, and those of Tyre and Aradus, to the new cities which they there founded. Gossellin.
The Arabic word for Jerusalem “Al-Quds” is a direct appropriation of the Hebrew word for the “Holy House.” In Hebrew being “Bayit HaMiqdash” or בית המקדש״.” Enough pretending like the Arabic version is just as legitimate. It is the definition of a colonial name. Think of how the American colonists named their states after mispronunciations or Anglicized versions of native words (Illinois, Mississippi, Kansas, Michigan, etc.) It is the same thing and it should not seen as anything different. It also occurred in other places as well. For example, Hebron (חברון) for which the Arabic name is “al-Khalil” meaning “the friend.” Funnily enough that’s exactly what it means in Hebrew too! This is the hallmark of colonial expansion.
I mean, the old Arabic name for Jerusalem was literally bait Al maqdis and that was around when the Romans were occupying the holy land. It's more likely the Arabs adapted the name from the Jews who were in the region.
The arabic word for jerusalem "al qudus" is simply a reduction for "bait al maqdis" (the holy house/place). The full name of the city using bait al maqdis would be "madinat beit al maqdis" but the name "bait al maqdis" usually means the area taht al aqsa mosque and the church of sepulchre are in. So the word "bait" was deleted (since it means "the house" so people thought it means the holy places themselves), and by using simple arabic grammar rules we can see that "madinat (city) maqdis" isnt gramattically correct so they removed the mem letter so "maqdis" became "qudis". For the name of the city hebron. Yes indeed the word khallil means "friend" in arabic but it also means helper or servent and bunch of other meanings. And actually the full name of the city is "madinat khalil al-rahman" which means "city of the friend/servant of al rahman (the most merciful aka god)" and by the server of god it refers to abraham which was believed to live in that city.
@@cl9615 respectfully, i think ur poiint doesnt stand at all. its the same as saying the germans "stole" the word hallo from english hello. u cant say that since english and german are both west germanic languages. arabic and hebrew are both semitic language so they both took the same vocabulary at the same time from the semitic language.
you keep on propagating nonsense like parts. There is proof that ancient languages in the Arabian peninsula used the sound P. Actually, all proof is against that but there is a tendency in western academia to force Greek and Persian linguistic trials to old Arabic although both said languages came to be in the first thousand BC while old Arabic dates to before the second thousand Bc, There is no Semitic designation in real historical studies, this is a Biblical term that has nothing to do with the region's people and genealogy. Hence, your termed photo semitic is nothing but a failed recycling of Jewish fallacies.
you wrote it too complicated, what exactly is the jewish fallasies, and what's your correction? you say ancient Arabic used the sound "P"? and Arabic wasn't influenced by Greek and Persian, but instead all languages came from Arabic?
@@victor_rybin The Jewish fallacies are numerous from claiming to be chosen people to Jacob wrestling God to the ground and forcing him to grant Palestine to the Jews to their alleged knowledge of the genealogy of people and this is the particular point I make. Semites and other designations of races is a proven fallacy based on scientific historical and biological findings. On the second point Arabs and since ancient times conserved their language and its phonetic, syntactical and morphological traits so the letter ب was consistently pronounced as a B sound never a P sound as ignorant western linguist claim. They argue that since ancient Greek had an alteration between the P sound representing original B sound in addition to P shifting to an F sound (ph) in Greek and because this phenomenon permitted through Hebrew and Ancient Egyptian then the same must have occurred to Arabic. They ignore that the Arab world ( in its overwhelming majority) never fell under Greek rule and that Arabic retained its fixed phonetic nature. As for the age of Arabic it dates to before the 2 thousand BC according to scores of Thamoudic graphites and inscriptions. So yes it long predates both Greek and Hebrew.
Your comment is borderline unreadable. What he is trying to say is that the word “Palestine” has no basis in Arabic, hence why the original “p” sound became “f” in order to accommodate the language difference. To prove this point please tell me what “Palestine” or “Filastin” means in Arabic.
@@cl9615 Phelest is the name of an ancient people thought to have come to Canaan from the Island of Crete. they settled on the southern shores of Canaan well before the Hebrews they assimilated into the population ( Canaan). when the Hebrews invaded the land of Canaan they held the position that the land is only theirs and they began a series of ethnic cleansing ( genocide) against the entire population. Inhabitants of the land ( Canaani, Phelest and bedwen Arabs) united and assimilated . The name of Phelest is pronounced with a an F sound not a P. when the Greeks occupied the land they gave it the name Phelest ( not able to pronounce the F sound) . This is the origin of the name it was used first as a general term to include all of the land of Canaan and it lasted to date. Jews living in the land were unable to conquer the southern shores of the land due to the unity between the Phelest and the bedewn Arabs. The Phelest assimilated into Arabs under the Nabatean kingdom ruling the largest part of the land ( southern Palestine , Sinai peninsula, Jordan and northern Saudi Arabia) from before Christ. while Jews remained under Greek rule and called the area they lived in ( in parts of todays west bank of Palestine as Judea. the same situation continued under the Romans . When Arab Muslim armies liberated the land from the occupying Byzantine empire they used the name to term the newly liberated land. Christians and Jews were protected and their religious rights were respected. This is the history of the land, names , people and religion. if you can't bear that too that is your problem. I know of certain others who have a serious problem with the reality of history and would rather prefer fabrications. Nevertheless, the objective reality when coupled with will of the people will always prevail. bare it or not it is the least of my concerns.
Herbew is a dead dialict of Arabic, that died out hence that is why Yemeni jews can read the Turah and other books written 1400 after Moses PBUH. The new invention os a mix of yiddish, arabic and latin thank you very much.
Hebrew isn’t even on the same branch as Arabic. Hebrew and Aramaic are on the same branch. Hebrew and Phoenician are dialects of Canaanite. If Hebrew were a dialect of Arabic, that would mean that Phoenician is also a dialect of Arabic, but that’s not true either. There vowels and consonant changes found in Hebrew clearly give away that it is not descended from Arabic, not Arabic is descended from Hebrew. Both, however, are descended of an earlier language that passed through several stages before they even became Hebrew and Arabic.
What Bullshit! The linguistic structure of Biblical Hebrew is ENOUGH evidence to prove that not only did all other ancient languages originate from Hebrew itself after separation incident at the Tower of Babel but also that Hebrew was the first language created by God and it was used to create the universe hence Adam & Eve also spoke it! Stop bullshitting people! Your Arabic came much later!
Palestinian Arabic objectively is a real thing, and you cannot deny that no matter which side of ethnic cleansing you support. Your denial of such a dialect is further proof that what you are doing is ethnic cleansing.
@@leseuletuniqueufcassesilte5700 i don't think Israelis commit ethnic cleansing, and that their denial of Palestinian culture proves their malintent. Israelis just propagate the correct idea that Palestinians are random Arabs, and that the Palestinian identity was created as a weapon against Israel. but Israelis overdo it, often denying _"Palestine"_ as a region, or _"Palestinian something"_ as a thing
@@leseuletuniqueufcassesilte5700 i don't think Israelis commit ethniс сleаnsing, and that their denial of Palestinian culture proves their mаlintеnt. Israelis just propagate the correct idea that Palestinians are random Arabs, and that the Palestinian identity was created as a wеapоn against Israel. but Israelis overdo it, often denying _"Palestine"_ as a region, or _"Palestinian something"_ as a thing
That's actually an informative video thank you!
No, thank you!
I've never seen anyone analyze sound shifts for non-IE langs, super cool and thanks for sharing!! I REALLY wanna learn Arabic but I'm literally terrified of its difficulty
Thanks.
Just learn Arabic; it's about progress, don't worry if you face challenges along the way.
It's like an ocean, if you think of sharks and rpgue waves you won't enjoy yourself. If you swim, frolick, dive and let it carry you, you'll enjoy it.
Wow an amazing video thank you 🙏
Thanks man
I don't know where you got the facts for this video but some claims about the Palestinian dialect are either wrong, outdated or apply only to bedouins. For example, it's not the case that Palestinian dialect uses t instead of th often. That's something more associated with Gulf Arabs and Lebanese.
Arabic speaker that grew up with Palestinians here:
Most Urban Palestinians from cities like Al-Quds, Jenin, Ramalla, etc. even from cities that were conquered by Israel lost the th and dh sounds. But Rural Palestinians and Bedouin Palestinians didn't lose it. Due to a lot of people from rural areas moving into the city it is now common to hear th and dh in Palestinian cities, but turning them into t and d like in talate for 3 and tum/tom for garlic is common.
Also Gulf Arabic NEVER loses th and dh, I have no idea where the hell you made that one up.
thank you so much! it explains so many things!
תודה
אני ישראלי דרך אגב את לא חייבת אנגלית
I always love these type of videos, and its cool to finally see one that is for a semetic language and not an indo european one
Thanks
@@atbing2425I would love to see one comparing semetic ones to other Afro asiatics, like Berber languags
@@Yahya-sb1yo i would love to,
There isn't a lot of information on the topic, but I'll see what I can do.
Very interesting and very useful! Thank you very much!
Thank you
man you deserve more subscribers this is really cool ngl
Thanks man
Why won’t you lie? You usually do. Why not this time?
Actually crazy how much nonsense and random hate bro’s getting from people who do not understand the concept / study of linguistics; amazing video, keep it up!
Thanks
Top tier video.
Good video, information seems legit, even if your pronunciation of certain sounds is just a little bit off 😅
Thanks,
Yeah it's definitely not easy
Superb! Thanks
Thanks
A very good video!
Thank you
In modern Arabic, glottal stop is represented by letter hamzah, ء . The Mehri Arabic dialect has voiceless alveolar lateral fricative, ڛ . I think Tiberian hebrew sounds closer to Arabic.
Thanks for this video. Please note that /x/ is a *velar* fricative, not an uvular sound as you say.
Well from what I have seen it's sort of variable. So you are right that you could interpret both in Hebrew and Arabic alike that these fricatives are velar.
I chose to represent them as uvular simply from my experience as a native Hebrew speaker.
Well done
bravo!
Thanks
Isn't it called Levantine Arabic? It's spoken in Lebanon, Western Syria and Jordan
Yeah obviously you can call it Levantine arabic.
Palestinian arabic are the varieties of Levantine spoken in Palestine and Israel.
תודה רבה
Thank God arabic pharyngealized consonants are not like in the old arabic.... it would be objectively the hardest language to learn💀
I swear to god people in the commend are spewing the most ridiculous claims I have ever heard, as if Arabic was the only language ever existing in the middle east
Well, there are people who pretend that Israel was the only civilisation to exist in the levant.
Crazy people exist on both sides.
czcams.com/video/1VeP4h3NSbY/video.htmlsi=Rhdcm-8BRgBfAsbs
Only language in the world
@@atbing2425 you got it wrong, it's the only language in the universe
@@atbing2425
That video is full of Pseudo-science.
You don't say
Please fix your thumbnail my guy.
I love them ❤️💙🖤🤍💚
yes, interesting..
Thanks
Speaking of Ghazzah, I haven't heard anyone on the news who isn't a Semite pronounce Rafaḥ right.
I'm assuming your point is that Jews aren't Semites apparently
@@atbing2425 No, both Arabs and Israelis would pronounce the final consonant, but a lot of people drop it.
Lol sorry
I'm just so used to these annoying people
@@atbing2425 you need to disarm
At 3:13 It's not clear what did you mean by the voiceless glottal fricative sound (ה / H) "elided" in modern Hebrew?! This is radically untrue! I'm Israeli and this is my native language, I can assure that no native speaker of Israeli Hebrew would ever silence the letter ה. This is such a strange and deceptive claim about Hebrew that giving examples to demonstrate that it's wrong - would be a weird understatement, because it is just ridiculous as claiming that in English that the sound of H is somehow silent. How about:
aHavá, HaBáyit HeHarím HaHatzHará, HaHit'Hapkhút, LeHitmaHaMéHa?
or this very well-known childhood tongue twister:
"Anakhnu lo meHamemaHarim, anakhnu meHamemaHarot"?
All the H's above represent the modern Hebrew letter ה and are pronounced EXACTLY the same as H in English, Anyone who claims otherwise has probably never heard Hebrew as it is spoken in Israel today. In fact, a native Hebrew speaker who would pronounce the letter ה in a any other way than Voiceless glottal fricative will be considered to have speech impediment (For example: saying זָב or זָ־אָב, instead of זָהָב = zaHAv as it should be pronounced, otherwise speech-language pathologists make a living from those who have difficulty pronouncing this words or any other with the H sound.) The letter ה in contemporary Hebrew is a consonant! *Only* when it appears at the end of words, it is used as a silent letter - „ה”א שותקת” as we were all taught here in first grade. C'mon, This is all so painfully obvious...
It is unfortunate that credible information is tainted by false claims, particularly when presented at such a high level of knowledge.
5:50, Arabic has sh ش though, or is that different?
I'm sorry I didn't understand the question
@@atbing2425 Arabic asparations are separate and distinguishable.
Are you Persian?
Israeli
@@atbing2425 LOL
@@yosuf5686that’s not funny
@@calebbrown7025 It's not funny if he's Israeli...yes
But the funny thing is that he is Persian and pretends to be an Israeli
@@yosuf5686 oh okay. I was confused
How ironic
What is the goal of this video? Pardon me but I’m very confused. Is there a reason you can’t pronounce Arabic words correctly? Your pronunciation was not very good. So I’m really confused by the purpose of this video if you are struggling to speak the languages. Perhaps focus on languages you’re more knowledgeable on? Maybe then the information can be more accurate. Good day.
he's not pronouncing Arabic like a native for the same reason he's not pronouncing English words like a native?? Like why is this so hard for you
Israilte Hebrew is not hebrew at all. it sounds like a Foreigner trying to pronounce Arabic
"Modern Hebrew is not Hebrew because it doesn't sound like Arabic"
Free Free Jerusalem 💀
There is no such thing as (hebrew language).
jews after living with the Canaanites, they learned their language/dialect. After that they massacred the Canaanites and changed the name of the Canaanite language/dialect into hebrew.
In the book history of Israel by Martin Noth on p. 24 the author says: When the Israelite tribes arrived, however, they still found that the language spoken was the Semitic 'Canaanite', and, like many earlier immigrants, they and their relations adopted this language in place of the probably Aramaic dialect they had spoken previously.
This is why you see images in which there is an arrow drawn from Canaanite to hebrew. It basically means that hebrew is derived/stolen from Canaanite.
Btw, i'm talking about old hebrew. As for modern hebrew. it's not even the same as old hebrew. It's basically an amalgamation of multiple languages.
They copied the language and called it Hebrew. However, Canaanites continued to live and evolve. Hebrew became a d3@d language
According to the archeological record, (and not the Biblical record as I assume you’re taking) Israelites emerged as a group from within the Canaanites. This means that the Israelites were originally Canaanites but then became unique mostly because of their monolatry. So what I’m trying to say is that the language spoken by the Israelites (ancient Jews) was in fact a Canaanite language. Hebrew comes from the Canaanite branch of the semitic language family.
As for your take on Modern Hebrew, I would love to hear what you think the other languages that comprise Hebrew are. The fact of the matter is that modern Hebrew is incredibly similar to ancient Hebrew differing only really in syntax, and of course, vocabulary. Since Hebrew was only used liturgically for thousands of years many words for modern concepts had to be developed. These words were either developed by extrapolating from existing Hebrew root words or from other similar languages like Arabic. Your assessment that modern Hebrew is merely an “amalgamation of other languages” is far from the truth.
Exactly. There is no such thing as 'Hebrew'. It had always been called, for the majority of its history as a spoken language, 'Canaanite'. Steal the land, Steal the language, claim someone else ancestry, claim falafel is yours, claim Hummus is yours, claim our Levantine music as yours. On top of that, 'Jewish History' is all fabricated and made up of thin air. All these 'archeological findings' are propaganda, exaggerated, and clearly mislabeled (if one delves into a serious academic research regarding this matter) & conflated with the Canaanite archetypes found all over the Levant. The whole thing is a mythology advertised as history.
@@cl9615 Ok jew, how can you determine that israelites emerged as a group from within the Canaanites by relying on archeological record? Answer: you can’t.m, unless there is an ancient scroll that says (israelites emerged from Canaanites) and that doesn’t exist.
Canaanites/Phoencians are Arabs.
The definition of Arab is (a person that is originally from Arabia/Arabian peninsula).
Canaanites/Phoenicians were from Bahrain. Bahrain is part of Arabia/Arabian peninsula. This means that Canaanites/Phoenicians are Arabs by definition.
Proof:
In the book Geography by Strabo translated by Hans Claude Hamilton and William Falconer in book XVI chapter 3 section 4 the author says: On sailing further, there are other islands, Tyre and Aradus, which have temples resembling those of the Phoenicians. The inhabitants of these islands (if we are to believe them) say that the islands and cities bearing the same name as those of the Phoenicians are their own colonies.
William Falconer says in the margin: Besides the islands Tyre and Aradus, there existed even in the time of Alexander, and near the present Cape Gherd, a city called Sidon or Sidodona, which was visited by Nearchus, as may be seen in his Periplus. The Phoenician inhabitants of these places appear to have afterwards removed to the western side of the Persian Gulf, and to the islands Bahrain, to which they gave the names Tylos, or Tyre, and Aradus. The latter name still exists; it was from this place that the Phoenicians moved, to establish themselves on the shores of the Mediterranean, and transferred the name of Sidon, their ancient capital, and those of Tyre and Aradus, to the new cities which they there founded. Gossellin.
The Arabic word for Jerusalem “Al-Quds” is a direct appropriation of the Hebrew word for the “Holy House.” In Hebrew being “Bayit HaMiqdash” or בית המקדש״.” Enough pretending like the Arabic version is just as legitimate. It is the definition of a colonial name. Think of how the American colonists named their states after mispronunciations or Anglicized versions of native words (Illinois, Mississippi, Kansas, Michigan, etc.) It is the same thing and it should not seen as anything different. It also occurred in other places as well. For example, Hebron (חברון) for which the Arabic name is “al-Khalil” meaning “the friend.” Funnily enough that’s exactly what it means in Hebrew too! This is the hallmark of colonial expansion.
I mean, the old Arabic name for Jerusalem was literally bait Al maqdis and that was around when the Romans were occupying the holy land. It's more likely the Arabs adapted the name from the Jews who were in the region.
The arabic word for jerusalem "al qudus" is simply a reduction for "bait al maqdis" (the holy house/place). The full name of the city using bait al maqdis would be "madinat beit al maqdis" but the name "bait al maqdis" usually means the area taht al aqsa mosque and the church of sepulchre are in. So the word "bait" was deleted (since it means "the house" so people thought it means the holy places themselves), and by using simple arabic grammar rules we can see that "madinat (city) maqdis" isnt gramattically correct so they removed the mem letter so "maqdis" became "qudis".
For the name of the city hebron. Yes indeed the word khallil means "friend" in arabic but it also means helper or servent and bunch of other meanings. And actually the full name of the city is "madinat khalil al-rahman" which means "city of the friend/servant of al rahman (the most merciful aka god)" and by the server of god it refers to abraham which was believed to live in that city.
@@mahmoudbts6188Thank you for the more in depth explanation. I think my point still stands though.
Why are we arguing about naming conventions when thousands of children are being killed
@@cl9615 respectfully, i think ur poiint doesnt stand at all. its the same as saying the germans "stole" the word hallo from english hello. u cant say that since english and german are both west germanic languages. arabic and hebrew are both semitic language so they both took the same vocabulary at the same time from the semitic language.
you keep on propagating nonsense like parts. There is proof that ancient languages in the Arabian peninsula used the sound P. Actually, all proof is against that but there is a tendency in western academia to force Greek and Persian linguistic trials to old Arabic although both said languages came to be in the first thousand BC while old Arabic dates to before the second thousand Bc, There is no Semitic designation in real historical studies, this is a Biblical term that has nothing to do with the region's people and genealogy. Hence, your termed photo semitic is nothing but a failed recycling of Jewish fallacies.
The least delusional Arab
you wrote it too complicated, what exactly is the jewish fallasies, and what's your correction? you say ancient Arabic used the sound "P"? and Arabic wasn't influenced by Greek and Persian, but instead all languages came from Arabic?
@@victor_rybin The Jewish fallacies are numerous from claiming to be chosen people to Jacob wrestling God to the ground and forcing him to grant Palestine to the Jews to their alleged knowledge of the genealogy of people and this is the particular point I make. Semites and other designations of races is a proven fallacy based on scientific historical and biological findings. On the second point Arabs and since ancient times conserved their language and its phonetic, syntactical and morphological traits so the letter ب was consistently pronounced as a B sound never a P sound as ignorant western linguist claim. They argue that since ancient Greek had an alteration between the P sound representing original B sound in addition to P shifting to an F sound (ph) in Greek and because this phenomenon permitted through Hebrew and Ancient Egyptian then the same must have occurred to Arabic. They ignore that the Arab world ( in its overwhelming majority) never fell under Greek rule and that Arabic retained its fixed phonetic nature. As for the age of Arabic it dates to before the 2 thousand BC according to scores of Thamoudic graphites and inscriptions. So yes it long predates both Greek and Hebrew.
Your comment is borderline unreadable. What he is trying to say is that the word “Palestine” has no basis in Arabic, hence why the original “p” sound became “f” in order to accommodate the language difference. To prove this point please tell me what “Palestine” or “Filastin” means in Arabic.
@@cl9615 Phelest is the name of an ancient people thought to have come to Canaan from the Island of Crete. they settled on the southern shores of Canaan well before the Hebrews they assimilated into the population ( Canaan). when the Hebrews invaded the land of Canaan they held the position that the land is only theirs and they began a series of ethnic cleansing ( genocide) against the entire population. Inhabitants of the land ( Canaani, Phelest and bedwen Arabs) united and assimilated . The name of Phelest is pronounced with a an F sound not a P. when the Greeks occupied the land they gave it the name Phelest ( not able to pronounce the F sound) . This is the origin of the name it was used first as a general term to include all of the land of Canaan and it lasted to date. Jews living in the land were unable to conquer the southern shores of the land due to the unity between the Phelest and the bedewn Arabs. The Phelest assimilated into Arabs under the Nabatean kingdom ruling the largest part of the land ( southern Palestine , Sinai peninsula, Jordan and northern Saudi Arabia) from before Christ. while Jews remained under Greek rule and called the area they lived in ( in parts of todays west bank of Palestine as Judea. the same situation continued under the Romans . When Arab Muslim armies liberated the land from the occupying Byzantine empire they used the name to term the newly liberated land. Christians and Jews were protected and their religious rights were respected. This is the history of the land, names , people and religion. if you can't bear that too that is your problem. I know of certain others who have a serious problem with the reality of history and would rather prefer fabrications. Nevertheless, the objective reality when coupled with will of the people will always prevail. bare it or not it is the least of my concerns.
There is no such thing as Palestinian Arabic. The only indigenous words in "Palestinian Arabic" are in Hebrew.
What?
There's no such thing as Hebrew. It's just the ancient Canaanite language
There is, in fact, a distinct dialect of Arabic spoken in Palestine no matter how you try and spin it, and there has been for centuries.
@@leseuletuniqueufcassesilte5700 Give me ONE "Palestinian" word - common..
bait
That's yiddish, not hebrew.
Herbew is a dead dialict of Arabic, that died out hence that is why Yemeni jews can read the Turah and other books written 1400 after Moses PBUH. The new invention os a mix of yiddish, arabic and latin thank you very much.
Hebrew isn’t even on the same branch as Arabic. Hebrew and Aramaic are on the same branch. Hebrew and Phoenician are dialects of Canaanite. If Hebrew were a dialect of Arabic, that would mean that Phoenician is also a dialect of Arabic, but that’s not true either.
There vowels and consonant changes found in Hebrew clearly give away that it is not descended from Arabic, not Arabic is descended from Hebrew. Both, however, are descended of an earlier language that passed through several stages before they even became Hebrew and Arabic.
What Bullshit! The linguistic structure of Biblical Hebrew is ENOUGH evidence to prove that not only did all other ancient languages originate from Hebrew itself after separation incident at the Tower of Babel but also that Hebrew was the first language created by God and it was used to create the universe hence Adam & Eve also spoke it! Stop bullshitting people! Your Arabic came much later!
BS
No it is not, stop it
What a bunch of crap.
Jordanian Arabic* "palestine" is not a real thing.
Do Phoenician and Hebrew or Aramaic and Hebrew next time.
Palestine is a real region, same as Mesopotamia, Caucasus, etc. Maybe you're in a wrong place for political controvercies
Jordanian and Palestinian dialects are different
Palestinian Arabic objectively is a real thing, and you cannot deny that no matter which side of ethnic cleansing you support. Your denial of such a dialect is further proof that what you are doing is ethnic cleansing.
@@leseuletuniqueufcassesilte5700 i don't think Israelis commit ethnic cleansing, and that their denial of Palestinian culture proves their malintent. Israelis just propagate the correct idea that Palestinians are random Arabs, and that the Palestinian identity was created as a weapon against Israel. but Israelis overdo it, often denying _"Palestine"_ as a region, or _"Palestinian something"_ as a thing
@@leseuletuniqueufcassesilte5700 i don't think Israelis commit ethniс сleаnsing, and that their denial of Palestinian culture proves their mаlintеnt. Israelis just propagate the correct idea that Palestinians are random Arabs, and that the Palestinian identity was created as a wеapоn against Israel. but Israelis overdo it, often denying _"Palestine"_ as a region, or _"Palestinian something"_ as a thing
Thanks ... i wanted to find sth like this 🤍❤️