Integral with a limit

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  • čas přidán 29. 08. 2024
  • Here I evaluate an integral with a limit, using the celebrated Dominated Convergence Theorem. Come and watch this video, this is pure mathematics at its finest!
    Link to the math blog: www.math3ma.co...
    Dominated Convergence Theorem: • Dominated Convergence ...
    sin(x)/x: • lim sin(x)/x = 1 as x ...
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Komentáře • 120

  • @drpeyam
    @drpeyam  Před 3 lety +4

    Link to the math blog: www.math3ma.com/blog/dominated-convergence-theorem
    Dominated Convergence Theorem: czcams.com/video/mUObEZJ5LRw/video.html
    sin(x)/x: czcams.com/video/K03dmcppA4M/video.html

    • @carlosgiovanardi8197
      @carlosgiovanardi8197 Před 3 lety

      www.amazon.com/Equations-Mathematical-Physics-Samarskii-Tikhonov/dp/0080102263
      www.amazon.com/Collection-Problems-Mathematical-Physics-Dover/dp/0486658066

  • @insouciantFox
    @insouciantFox Před 3 lety +53

    When guessing, guess π.
    When in doubt, Euler did it.

  • @route66math77
    @route66math77 Před 3 lety +40

    The mighty Dominated Convergence Theorem strikes again, awesome! :-)

    • @guitar_jero
      @guitar_jero Před 3 lety +1

      Better than just getting the answer and say a wizard did it :)

    • @route66math77
      @route66math77 Před 3 lety

      @@guitar_jero As I always say, "It's not magic, it's logic!" :-D

  • @arvindsrinivasan424
    @arvindsrinivasan424 Před 3 lety +16

    If you decide to take the “hard” route and integrate first, the integral gives
    pi*n*(1-e^-(1/n))
    [I integrated this using Residue Theorem and recognizing that the real part of (e^(i*x/n)-1)/(i*x/n) is equal to sin(x/n)/(x/n) ]
    Taking the limit as it goes to infinity requires taking the limit of an indeterminate argument, but is quite easy to show it gives pi

    • @charlesbromberick4247
      @charlesbromberick4247 Před 3 lety +1

      that´s what I would have tried

    • @elephantdinosaur2284
      @elephantdinosaur2284 Před 3 lety +1

      Nice solution Arvind! I tried my luck with n*exp(iz/n)/z(z^2+1) directly but had issues doing the small loop around the origin because of the pole there. Your trick circumvents the issue nicely.
      Regarding the final limit I like to expand exp(-1/n) = 1 - 1/n + O(1/n^2) and then just substituting in. Saves all the messiness with l'hopitals rule.

    • @violintegral
      @violintegral Před 2 lety

      You could also use Feynman's trick to evaluate this integral as an alternative to Residue Theorem

  • @umerfarooq4831
    @umerfarooq4831 Před 3 lety +5

    Great video informative , interesting and nonetheless entertaining especially the "some kind of people"

  • @AnkitSharma-ef7md
    @AnkitSharma-ef7md Před 3 lety +2

    Dr. Peyam is high on mathematics.
    I loved the approach.
    Coolest professor I ever have seen.
    Wished you were my post graduate professor..
    😁😁😁😁😁

  • @RalphDratman
    @RalphDratman Před 3 lety +1

    I enjoy mathematics but this is one of those moments when I become very aware that I could never become a mathematician.
    I did become an engineer (of computer-related hardware and software), but unofficially.
    Now that I'm retired, I wonder how I ever managed to do any of that!

  • @thedoublehelix5661
    @thedoublehelix5661 Před 3 lety +31

    7:25 lmaoo

    • @byronvega8298
      @byronvega8298 Před 3 lety +7

      Ah yes, the fundamental theorem of engineering

  • @LatestBinge
    @LatestBinge Před 3 lety +1

    Love your videos! I'm an 8th grader but thanks to you I start to understand and love complex math!

  • @blightedcrowmain8236
    @blightedcrowmain8236 Před 3 lety +7

    i like how he says ty for watching at the beggining

    • @pbj4184
      @pbj4184 Před 3 lety +4

      Now that you say it, only Dr. Peyam does that 🤔
      I never noticed it but now I realized I always know it's a Dr. Peyam video whenever I hear those words.
      11/10 on branding, Dr. Peyam!

  • @tejpalsinghantal8987
    @tejpalsinghantal8987 Před 3 lety +18

    Mandatory comment to help with the algorithm

  • @danielaorozco9995
    @danielaorozco9995 Před 3 lety +1

    feels like magic :0 thanks a lot doctor!

  • @yogeshwagh2849
    @yogeshwagh2849 Před 3 lety +1

    Awesome 🙌🏻

  • @123ucr
    @123ucr Před 3 lety +1

    If I were a math professor like you, I would put this problem in a Calculus 2 Final exam or an AP Calculus BC exam. Heck, it might even be an extra credit problem. Why? For starters, because you would have to probably use L'Hospital's rule and you definitely need your trigonometry skills to solve this problem. Second of all, this problem's solution can be messy like a chili cheeseburger and takes a lot of time to solve (at least 9-10 minutes). A typical Calculus 2 problem takes like 5-7 minutes to solve. Third and finally, this is one of the hardest Calculus 2 problems that I have seen in my life.

    • @UltraMaXAtAXX
      @UltraMaXAtAXX Před 3 lety

      Well, except a calculus II student wouldn't really know about the DCT.

    • @123ucr
      @123ucr Před 3 lety

      @@UltraMaXAtAXX --- I guess it looks like a Calculus 2 problem. That is why I would say it should be an extra credit problem on a Calculus 2 final. Is it possible for a Calculus 2 student to solve this problem? Short answer, yes. But, it is difficult for a Calculus 2 student to solve? Short answer, also yes. In reality, it is actually an advanced calculus or a real analysis problem or at least an Honors Calculus 2 problem.

  • @vishalmishra3046
    @vishalmishra3046 Před 3 lety

    Simply change integration range from a to b and you get the result | atan(b) - atan(a). Now replace a and b with ∞ and -∞ to get π/2 - (-π/2) = π. Simple.

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      You’re completely missing the point of the video, this is precisely how you shouldn’t evaluate the integral

    • @vishalmishra3046
      @vishalmishra3046 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam For a moment let's assume no specific value of a and b except that both are real and a < b. Is there any combination of (a,b) for which the value of the integral is not ( atan(b) - atan(a) ) ? Given no exceptions, the value of the integral remains accurate for all combinations of such a constrained pair (a, b) including when -a and b are extremely large (and approaching infinity). This is clearly a more generalized solution that is also applicable to the specific case of (a, b) -> (-∞, ∞) in the video. Right ?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety +1

      Again, not the point of the video, there are some integrals for which you cannot simply pass to the limit like n times indicator of (0,1/n). The point is not the (a,b) values but whether you can simply put the limit inside the integral

  • @IoT_
    @IoT_ Před 3 lety +4

    7:26 I'm an engineer and I don't understand why you didn't allow to put equal sign between sine function and x on your math channel 🌝

  • @shivaudaiyar2556
    @shivaudaiyar2556 Před 3 lety

    Thanks for such a great content with love from India

  • @TheAustrianAnimations87

    This video got randomly recommended to me. Nice, I've learned something new.

  • @joelschwed7177
    @joelschwed7177 Před 3 lety

    There is no limit to your wisdom good sir...

  • @ChariotduNord
    @ChariotduNord Před 3 lety

    great video as always dr peyam! this really brings me back to when I took a mathematical physics class, which basically ended up being a class on functional analysis. good times lol

  • @comingshoon2717
    @comingshoon2717 Před 3 lety +1

    gracias Doctor Peyam... ahora ya sabemos que los límites pueden ingresar dentro de una integral sin problemas jejej ... saludos desde 🇨🇱🇨🇱

  • @bouch7643
    @bouch7643 Před 3 lety

    You could use L'Hopital theorem too because when n goes to infinity, lim of f (n) = Sin (x/n) is equal to 0 and lim of g (n)= x/n is equal to 0. Then lim of f (n)/g (n) is equal to lim f'(n)/g'(n). I did not do thd calculus but this should works. Thoughts?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      The main point is why you can put the limit inside the integral 🙃

    • @bouch7643
      @bouch7643 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam it is obvious because integrals are additions technically.

    • @bouch7643
      @bouch7643 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam sorry I just saw you mebtionned L'Hopital at 2:25. To burn steps in maths videos I use the youtube 10 fast forward feature a bit too much.

  • @rounaksinha5309
    @rounaksinha5309 Před 3 lety

    Happy mathematics day
    Perfect integral for Mathematics day

  • @lucho2868
    @lucho2868 Před 3 lety +5

    9:42

  • @adam_elm_5680
    @adam_elm_5680 Před 3 lety +1

    im happy when I get a notif of a new video!

  • @deadfish3789
    @deadfish3789 Před 3 lety +1

    You did this proof entirely backwards, but I liked it

    • @deadfish3789
      @deadfish3789 Před 3 lety

      Also I knew you could swap it if f_n-->f uniformly, but I'm assuming this is a weaker condition, and therefore applicable in more circumstances

  • @strmandola5484
    @strmandola5484 Před 3 lety

    Please calculate integral 1/a + cos(X) !

  • @jiteshsingh3473
    @jiteshsingh3473 Před 3 lety +1

    Make video on value of evolution of 'e'

  • @JSSTyger
    @JSSTyger Před 3 lety +2

    Dr Peyam is like that midnight snack while the wife is sleeping.

  • @mathjitsuteacher
    @mathjitsuteacher Před 3 lety

    Hi Peyam, great video as always!
    There is a little mistake. The inequality
    -x

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      It is true actually. sin(-pi/2) = -1 which is between -pi/2 and pi/2

    • @mathjitsuteacher
      @mathjitsuteacher Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam I believe you wanted to use sin(x)

    • @robertgerbicz
      @robertgerbicz Před 3 lety

      You also made a mistake, in the video -x

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      Yeah I meant to say for positive x. In any case doesn’t matter since we’re taking absolute values

  • @heliocentric1756
    @heliocentric1756 Před 3 lety +6

    7:26 😂😁 What type of people are you referring to?

  • @zedisnotded8136
    @zedisnotded8136 Před 3 lety

    I don't understand why you would put the limit inside the integral when you need to know the limit of the inside function before anyway.

  • @yacinedjalil2355
    @yacinedjalil2355 Před 3 lety

    Intégrale indéfinie comme lim quand x tend vers infini

  • @toby6225
    @toby6225 Před 3 lety +2

    Dr. Peyam: uses Dominated Convergence Theorem
    Engineers: we don't do that here

    • @Frandahab
      @Frandahab Před 3 lety +2

      Physicist here, we don't do that either xD

  • @charlesbromberick4247
    @charlesbromberick4247 Před 3 lety

    smart guy

  • @nanangmuhammad2067
    @nanangmuhammad2067 Před 3 lety +1

    I like this trick. Really can we put limit inside integral?

    • @afrolichesmain777
      @afrolichesmain777 Před 3 lety +2

      If the conditions that were shown are satisfied, you can swap the integral and limit signs. However, if you know that fn converges to f uniformly, you can also swap the limit and integral signs.

  • @rounaksinha5309
    @rounaksinha5309 Před 3 lety +6

    Happy National Mathematics day to everyone

    • @jamesbentonticer4706
      @jamesbentonticer4706 Před 3 lety

      Is it just on India? Or is it national math day in usa as well?

    • @rounaksinha5309
      @rounaksinha5309 Před 3 lety +1

      @@jamesbentonticer4706Hii! James it is just India. IN USA and all over the world Math day is celebrated on 14 March and I have also read somewhere that another Math day or same kinda stuff is observed on 15 October in USA

    • @jamesbentonticer4706
      @jamesbentonticer4706 Před 3 lety

      @@rounaksinha5309 okay thanks for the info. I thought I'd make sure before I went and said happy math day to everyone lol

  • @tommimuller8602
    @tommimuller8602 Před 3 lety +1

    4:20 OMG 😂

  • @michaelz2270
    @michaelz2270 Před 3 lety

    You really dominated in that video.

  • @frozenmoon998
    @frozenmoon998 Před 3 lety

    If there is a Peyam, there is a way!

  • @dipayanguhapatra3580
    @dipayanguhapatra3580 Před 3 lety

    Please integrate x square times of tan2x dx
    x^2.tan2x dx

  • @iabervon
    @iabervon Před 3 lety

    I say that, once you've proven what the derivative of sin x is, you can use l'Hopital's rule to find the limit of (sin x)/x if you forget what that value was. I think the first time I saw the derivation of the derivative of sin x, that limit wasn't called out as a lemma, and we just proved it again later when we needed it for something else.

    • @randomlife7935
      @randomlife7935 Před 3 lety +1

      According to blackpenredpen, using l'Hospital's rule on the limit of (sin x/x) is wrong because to determine the derivative of sin x, the limit of (sin x/x) is used, thus making the proof circular.

    • @iabervon
      @iabervon Před 3 lety

      @@randomlife7935 If you've gotten to the point of being able to use the derivative of sin x in arbitrary problems, there's no reason you shouldn't be able to use it for the limit of (sin x)/x. Of course, if you're allowed to use the derivative of sin x in arbitrary problems, you should just be able to use the fact that the limit is 1, because you proved it in class along the way, but you're not necessarily going to memorize and reference every true statement you've established. L'Hopital's rule is the easiest way to reprove it from the table of derivatives, if you need it for some other limit, like in this case.
      bprp's point is that, if the question on the test is "prove the limit of (sin x)/x", you can't use l'Hopital's rule, because the implied context of that question is that we haven't yet proven anything that we used that limit to prove. But if the question on the test is something new, you can use everything we've seen in class, and you don't have to use the original derivations if you need values you've forgotten.

  • @kanewilliams1653
    @kanewilliams1653 Před 3 lety

    wow I have never heard of the Dominated Convergence Theorem. Make a video on it!! :=)

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      Already done ✅

    • @kanewilliams1653
      @kanewilliams1653 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam Oops.. should have looked at your comments.. will watch it now!!

  • @carlosgiovanardi8197
    @carlosgiovanardi8197 Před 3 lety

    GREAT!
    Thanks for sharing.
    if possible, can you make videos on pde´s (parabolic, elliptic, hyperbolic) focusing on examples and their solutions?
    do you know the books of Budak, Samarsky and Tijonov?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      There are two PDE playlists, check them out! Also nothing beats Evans’ textbook

    • @carlosgiovanardi8197
      @carlosgiovanardi8197 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam thank you for your answer. i know your playlists. appreciate but this not what i am looking for. anyway, will go after your reference.

  • @ajiwibowo8736
    @ajiwibowo8736 Před 3 lety

    Doc, sometimes I do innequalities of rational function involving absolute value in it with the number test on number line. If mathematician they wont do test like that right? They must be make it in some cases or so. How did you do if theres some innequalities like that doc? May you give us how is your mathematical method on solving that kind of problem?

  • @reogreggeen5738
    @reogreggeen5738 Před 3 lety

    How do we properly justify the application of the DCT to an improper Riemann integral to begin with? Is this not an issue?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety +1

      Not really an issue, here we’re doing a Lebesgue integral actually, and the DCT applies to (improper) Lebesgue integrals

    • @reogreggeen5738
      @reogreggeen5738 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam Ah! Okay, thank you for the clarification on this - much appreciated. Have a good one!

  • @DELTASERPENT
    @DELTASERPENT Před 3 lety

    Great teaching Payamji. Have you written any books? Maths made easy!!!!

  • @pkvlogs5078
    @pkvlogs5078 Před 3 lety

    What if one adopts to clash this with fourier transformations or EULER integrals...???..☘🙂

  • @user-iv3cs4de5d
    @user-iv3cs4de5d Před 3 lety

    Lebesgue Integration Theory is very fun

  • @arturcostasteiner9735
    @arturcostasteiner9735 Před 3 lety

    Grreat!
    The dominated convergence theorem comes from measure theory, right?

  • @tesla5374
    @tesla5374 Před 3 lety

    Waaaw nice

  • @Kdd160
    @Kdd160 Před 3 lety

    That looked super horrible in the beginning but the answer was awesome 🤩🤩 pure math is my fav 😍❤

  • @Grassmpl
    @Grassmpl Před 3 lety

    You completely ignored the fact that the integrand has a singularity at x=0.

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety

      No it’s removable, no big deal

    • @Grassmpl
      @Grassmpl Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam yeah but you didn't justify that when finding the upper bounded "g" function.

  • @FT029
    @FT029 Před 3 lety

    2:42, I'm wondering why you can't use L'hopital's rule to evaluate lim as y goes to 0 of sin y / y.
    great explanation of the dominated convergence theorem! reminds me a bit of another similar one, arzela's theorem

    • @shivaudaiyar2556
      @shivaudaiyar2556 Před 3 lety

      No we cannot use lopithals rule

    • @FT029
      @FT029 Před 3 lety

      @@shivaudaiyar2556 Why?

    • @shivaudaiyar2556
      @shivaudaiyar2556 Před 3 lety

      @@FT029 we cannot use lopithals rule it's explanation is in one of the vedios of blackpenredpen watch it

    • @shivaudaiyar2556
      @shivaudaiyar2556 Před 3 lety

      @@FT029 czcams.com/video/mZiPdyHyUvE/video.html

    • @shivaudaiyar2556
      @shivaudaiyar2556 Před 3 lety

      @@FT029 watch this video

  • @user-dk3gv5tm3v
    @user-dk3gv5tm3v Před 3 lety +2

    Like-dislike ratio is ∞ (infinite) now.
    Don't make it less, everyone !

    • @pbj4184
      @pbj4184 Před 3 lety +1

      The domain of 1/x is R - {0}!! How dare you not respect that???
      Division by 0 is meaningless!!!! Aaaaargh!!!!!!!!!!!!

    • @user-dk3gv5tm3v
      @user-dk3gv5tm3v Před 3 lety +2

      @@pbj4184 That's why be positive with your limit ! 😉

    • @arvindsrinivasan424
      @arvindsrinivasan424 Před 3 lety +2

      @@pbj4184 in certain contexts this may be true, however you can define 1/x on the Riemann sphere including infinites...

  • @yilmazkaraman256
    @yilmazkaraman256 Před 3 lety

    can i use dominated convergence theorem for changing differentiation and integration?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 3 lety +2

      Actually yes, you write the derivative as a difference quotient and use the DCT. Check out my video on the dominated convergence theorem

    • @yilmazkaraman256
      @yilmazkaraman256 Před 3 lety

      @@drpeyam thanks. I will check your video

  • @JoshuaHernandez8a
    @JoshuaHernandez8a Před 3 lety

    Engineering be like: this is an internal product of a Dirac distribution at 0 and an arctangent derivative

  • @arnoldvillodas4997
    @arnoldvillodas4997 Před 3 lety

    👍👍👍👍👍👍👍👍👍👍👍

  • @davidepierrat9072
    @davidepierrat9072 Před 3 lety

    gud stuf

  • @enzy8022
    @enzy8022 Před 3 lety

    I can’t help it, but you look so much like Kyle from Nelk cool vids though

  • @mohammadabdulla8601
    @mohammadabdulla8601 Před 2 lety

    for some kind of ppl you put equal but not on this channel 😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 2 lety

      ?

    • @mohammadabdulla8601
      @mohammadabdulla8601 Před 2 lety

      @@drpeyam because some engineers use the approximation sinx = x for small x.I thought you are talking about this point.

  • @aryadebchatterjee5028
    @aryadebchatterjee5028 Před 3 lety

    15th viewer
    3rd like

  • @YoutubeModeratorsSuckMyBalls

    Wait is there analogy of the monothone convergence theorem for limits of functions?

    • @drpeyam
      @drpeyam  Před 4 měsíci

      There is a monotone convergence theorem for Lebesgue integrals