This is super well-done. I just went searching for a video on this topic to use as review in a unit about barbershop style in a choral arranging class. No need for me to reinvent the wheel--you've already nailed it!
Very precise and straightforward. Some theory books (like Laitz books) have the topic in a very twisted way. But this video clears my understanding. Thank you!
Thank you so much, This was really well put. could you please explain (or direct to an explanations) to why the third chord in the second bar of "sweet and low" is not written as F/C with the function of the Sub-dominant (IV) and instead it says Ped?
Sure! Check out my video on Second Inversion chord functions for the answer. 6/4 chords have specific function and this one here is no different. Second Inversion Triads (6/4 Chords)
Why, if the common tone is the root of the chord preceding, and it's a fully diminished chord, AND it is spelled as if it were the fully diminished form of the preceding chord, is it not just referred to as the diminished form of that preceding chord? We do this in Jazz all the time, generally using a diminished chord to precede some other chord, usually a Major 7 chord, but if the Major 7 chord is an FMaj7, I would refer to the preceding chord as Fdim. Or in Roman Numeral Analysis "idim7 to IMaj7" (still having the root of the FMaj7 as the common tone).
Also, in one example us are in the key of F, but referring to the CTdim as a Bdim (the "sharped 4th degree" of F), then you use an example in C but refer to the CTdim as D#dim (the "sharped 2nd degree" of C). I'm just not seeing the rhyme or reason for identifying the diminished chord as such in either case, but certainly lacks consistency. So, can you explain why this is?
Because the root of the common-tone 7th chord isn't the same as the prolonged chord - it's an Augmented 2nd away. RNs would look like I-#iio7-I or for example, C - d#o7 - C.
Thank you so much for this video! I was wondering can a common tone diminished chord have its root note one half-step above scale degree one of a given key, in other words can it be a bii° chord? This would be with four-note chords, in other words the “one” chord, in a major key, would be IM7, as opposed to just a major triad.
Pat, Generally, the common tone diminished 7th prolongs I and V via a chord with a root a step and a half away. However, because it is a symmetrical chord, you could spell it any which way you want, and also have another tone other than the 7th be the tone in common. That said, biio7 would contain scale degrees b2 b4(3) bb6(5) bb8 (7). It would be difficult to find a diatonic chord which contained these scale degrees, thus hard to prolong. Make sense?
Thank you very much for answer, Dr. Meyer. Yes, that is exactly the composition of the chord I am thinking of. :) One thing I hadn't registered was that the common tone diminished is to be a step and a half away, from the I (as in the example you provide) or from the V. Thanks for pointing that out. The reason for my question was a specific chord that had puzzled me quite a bit. I thought maybe it might fall into the category of common tone diminished, which I discovered thanks to your video, but obviously it doesn't. :) The chord in question appears in the progression of George Michael's (yes! ;) ) jazzy song “Kissing A Fool”. The tune is in Eb but the pitch of the original recording is actually lower, between D and Eb, just so you know should you listen to it. It starts with the IM7 chord, EbM7, which moves to E°7 (bii°7) before going to the ii7, Fm7. It was a bit of a riddle for me. First I thought that bii°7 might be a tritone substitution of the V7. But in that case we would have an E7, ie a major chord with a chordal b7, not a diminished chord (with chordal bb7). So that was out. I finally came to the conclusion that in this context, what looks like a bii°7 is in fact the secondary dominant of the ii chord (V/ii), but in first inversion, and with root (in this case, C) omitted. So instead of C7 (C E G Bb), we have E G Bb, which would be a diminished triad, but with D added, making up °7 chord, going to Fm7. Thus between the IM7, EbM7, chord and this faux bii°7 we have two common tones, G and Bb, which are respectively chordal 3 and 5 in EbM7, and chordal b3 and b5 in “E°7” (in fact something like C7/E omit C bb7). I hope I didn't make mistakes in this description. I guess this chord is just a secondary dominant in disguise, as it were, and nothing more.
Pat, as you describe it, the chord is actually built in E, and not Fb (bii), so yes, the best explanation is a secondary leading tone chord resolving to ii (viio7/ii). You can’t omit the root of the chord, as it is the identity of the chord, but you were so close! Go George Michael!
Thank you very much, Dr. Meyer, for reading through my long text and for introducing me to leading tone chords, which are new to me. Also the link between chord degree and chord name, the fact that, for instance E and Fb, are not functionally equivalent was something I wasn't sufficiently aware of. I watch all your videos here and I am very thankful for having access to such a great resource. I was wondering is there any handbook on harmony you might recommend that would help me get up to speed and provide reference.
@@patbreacadh There are many free resources out there on the internet, so you wouldn't have to buy a text of sorts. I'd try musictheory.net or teoria.com and see what kinds of gaps are in your knowledge.
This is super well-done. I just went searching for a video on this topic to use as review in a unit about barbershop style in a choral arranging class. No need for me to reinvent the wheel--you've already nailed it!
Thank you! I'm glad you liked the video. More useful videos to come in the future!
Thank you so much.
Very precise and straightforward. Some theory books (like Laitz books) have the topic in a very twisted way. But this video clears my understanding. Thank you!
Thank you for your kind words!
Looking forward to more advanced theory topics :D
This video was a life saver for me! I have my Theory IV final tomorrow and I haven't understood these chords all semester lol
I hope it went well and you passed.
How did it go?
Well done Kati, thanks!
Of course, as usual I’ll share it with my students!
crystal clear DR.👍
Excellent presentation! I wonder who gave this a thumb-down. It cannot be Brahms (referring to 4:19). Brahms was not a mean person, at all.
Super well explained, amazing
this would have taken me hours to understand using my textbook. 10 minutes here and i feel confident enough to skip to the exercises. thank you!!
Awesome! I hope you did well on the exercises!
I could understand it easier for your explanation! thanks!
Thank you so much, This was really well put.
could you please explain (or direct to an explanations) to why the third chord in the second bar of "sweet and low" is not written as F/C with the function of the Sub-dominant (IV) and instead it says Ped?
Sure! Check out my video on Second Inversion chord functions for the answer. 6/4 chords have specific function and this one here is no different. Second Inversion Triads (6/4 Chords)
czcams.com/video/Lpo88ravMac/video.html
Why, if the common tone is the root of the chord preceding, and it's a fully diminished chord, AND it is spelled as if it were the fully diminished form of the preceding chord, is it not just referred to as the diminished form of that preceding chord? We do this in Jazz all the time, generally using a diminished chord to precede some other chord, usually a Major 7 chord, but if the Major 7 chord is an FMaj7, I would refer to the preceding chord as Fdim. Or in Roman Numeral Analysis "idim7 to IMaj7" (still having the root of the FMaj7 as the common tone).
Also, in one example us are in the key of F, but referring to the CTdim as a Bdim (the "sharped 4th degree" of F), then you use an example in C but refer to the CTdim as D#dim (the "sharped 2nd degree" of C). I'm just not seeing the rhyme or reason for identifying the diminished chord as such in either case, but certainly lacks consistency. So, can you explain why this is?
Because the root of the common-tone 7th chord isn't the same as the prolonged chord - it's an Augmented 2nd away. RNs would look like I-#iio7-I or for example, C - d#o7 - C.
Do I get penalised for notating the second chord in bar 2 of Joseph Barnby as IV6/4?
No, but recognizing it’s pedal prolongation quality is also important.
@@DrKatiMeyerMusicTheory Yes, I've especially enjoyed your videos on prolongation. Many thanks.
Thank you so much for this video!
I was wondering can a common tone diminished chord have its root note one half-step above scale degree one of a given key, in other words can it be a bii° chord? This would be with four-note chords, in other words the “one” chord, in a major key, would be IM7, as opposed to just a major triad.
Pat, Generally, the common tone diminished 7th prolongs I and V via a chord with a root a step and a half away. However, because it is a symmetrical chord, you could spell it any which way you want, and also have another tone other than the 7th be the tone in common. That said, biio7 would contain scale degrees b2 b4(3) bb6(5) bb8 (7). It would be difficult to find a diatonic chord which contained these scale degrees, thus hard to prolong. Make sense?
Thank you very much for answer, Dr. Meyer. Yes, that is exactly the composition of the chord I am thinking of. :)
One thing I hadn't registered was that the common tone diminished is to be a step and a half away, from the I (as in the example you provide) or from the V. Thanks for pointing that out.
The reason for my question was a specific chord that had puzzled me quite a bit. I thought maybe it might fall into the category of common tone diminished, which I discovered thanks to your video, but obviously it doesn't. :)
The chord in question appears in the progression of George Michael's (yes! ;) ) jazzy song “Kissing A Fool”.
The tune is in Eb but the pitch of the original recording is actually lower, between D and Eb, just so you know should you listen to it.
It starts with the IM7 chord, EbM7, which moves to E°7 (bii°7) before going to the ii7, Fm7.
It was a bit of a riddle for me. First I thought that bii°7 might be a tritone substitution of the V7. But in that case we would have an E7, ie a major chord with a chordal b7, not a diminished chord (with chordal bb7). So that was out.
I finally came to the conclusion that in this context, what looks like a bii°7 is in fact the secondary dominant of the ii chord (V/ii), but in first inversion, and with root (in this case, C) omitted. So instead of C7 (C E G Bb), we have E G Bb, which would be a diminished triad, but with D added, making up °7 chord, going to Fm7.
Thus between the IM7, EbM7, chord and this faux bii°7 we have two common tones, G and Bb, which are respectively chordal 3 and 5 in EbM7, and chordal b3 and b5 in “E°7” (in fact something like C7/E omit C bb7).
I hope I didn't make mistakes in this description. I guess this chord is just a secondary dominant in disguise, as it were, and nothing more.
Pat, as you describe it, the chord is actually built in E, and not Fb (bii), so yes, the best explanation is a secondary leading tone chord resolving to ii (viio7/ii). You can’t omit the root of the chord, as it is the identity of the chord, but you were so close! Go George Michael!
Thank you very much, Dr. Meyer, for reading through my long text and for introducing me to leading tone chords, which are new to me.
Also the link between chord degree and chord name, the fact that, for instance E and Fb, are not functionally equivalent was something I wasn't sufficiently aware of.
I watch all your videos here and I am very thankful for having access to such a great resource. I was wondering is there any handbook on harmony you might recommend that would help me get up to speed and provide reference.
@@patbreacadh There are many free resources out there on the internet, so you wouldn't have to buy a text of sorts. I'd try musictheory.net or teoria.com and see what kinds of gaps are in your knowledge.