Equivalence (Propositional Logic)

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  • čas přidán 7. 09. 2024

Komentáře • 16

  • @drinkmug
    @drinkmug Před 10 lety +15

    I absolutely adore what you did at 1:20.

  • @ParadymShiftVegan
    @ParadymShiftVegan Před 3 lety +2

    One of these days I'm actually going to check out the website

    • @CarneadesOfCyrene
      @CarneadesOfCyrene  Před 3 lety +3

      Great! It is just a place to collect a lot of the videos into lessons and quizzes. If the videos work for you, you can find a lot of the content here.

    • @ParadymShiftVegan
      @ParadymShiftVegan Před 3 lety +1

      @@CarneadesOfCyrene Right on, yeah I definitely intend to check it out (: Thank you so much for all of your effort throughout the years in freely providing such high quality philosophical knowledge. big props to you! (pun intended)

  • @pamalogy
    @pamalogy Před 4 lety +3

    ≡ iff equivalence. I'm only writing this because I wanted to put the triple bar into my symbols favorites. Ha!

    • @ParadymShiftVegan
      @ParadymShiftVegan Před 3 lety

      ahh if only the CZcams app let you copy and paste other people's comments T.T

  • @-AbsoluteLight-
    @-AbsoluteLight- Před rokem

    So for the “if it is raining then I have my umbrella and if I have my umbrella then it is raining” wouldn’t that in simplification the transcendental arguement?

  • @victorcampos979
    @victorcampos979 Před 6 lety

    I have a question on the equivalence operation. The natural language form of a byconditional can be “if and only if”, which means that if I say that “A person is popular if and only if he’s either cool or popular”, I can write it down in formal language the following way “p(cVf)” (‘p’ is equivalent to (‘c’ or ‘f’)). However, by writting down “if and only if” I do not guarantee ‘p’ is equivalent to ‘(cVf)’ as ‘p’ might as well be a subset of ‘(cVf)’ and still satisfy the natural language meaning of “if and only if”.
    Then, why do they say that the logical way of saying “if and only if” is using an equivalence?

  • @Bladavia
    @Bladavia Před 7 lety +3

    So, is writing p≡q the same as writing (p>q)&(q>p) ?

  • @eulaliecholmondeley8326
    @eulaliecholmondeley8326 Před 7 lety +1

    Thank you. My logic final is tomorrow. 😓😱😱😱

  • @mohammedshoaib5508
    @mohammedshoaib5508 Před 6 lety +1

    hi carneades, your website shows there is a course for 100 days of logic but when I click on it, nothing is there, it is empty. I am going to type this for the rest of the 98 videos.
    I have completed many courses on your website and I need certification for logic.By the way, if I go and check my certificate section, it says I have no certificates. Is completing 5 courses not enough. What is required for certificate? I dont want to work hard for not getting any certificate.