An Exponential Trigonometric Equation
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Raise everything to the power of sin(x) and write the 16 as 4^2.
Bases are equal so exponents are equal, notice the left side is the same as sin(2x)
Everything simplifies to 2x = arcsin(1)
X = pi/4 + N*pi
4 ^ ( 2 cos ( x) - 1/ sin(x)) = 1
sin ( 2 x) = 1
2 x = ( 2 n + 1/2) Ď
x = ( n + 1/4) Ď
Apply the Pythagorean trigonometric substitution immediately to 1 and put all the terms on one side and you get (sinx-cosx)^2 = 0. [or (cosx-sinx)^2 it makes no difference]. This implies that sinx == cosx, which only occurs at pi/4 and 3 pi/4 with a period of pi.
I also got x=pi/4 + pi*n.
2nd method is what I went for.
Instead of adding 1 to both sides, we can just put cos^2x+sin^2s-2cosxsinx=0, which is (cosx-sinx)^2=0, so cosx=sinx, then x=pi/4 +npi
Why not use , when 2 cos x sin x =1, the double angle formula 2 cos x sin x = cos 2x, so cos 2x = 1, Since cos (pi/2) = 1, x = pi/4 + n pi.
I should have said 2 cos x sin x = sin 2x, and sin 2x = 1, sin(pi/2) = 1
4^(2cos x) = 4^csc x
2 cos x = 1/sin x
2 sin x cos x = 1 and x â nĎ
sin 2x = 1
2x = Ď/2 + 2nĎ
x = Ď/4 + nĎ
Why not use , when 2 cos x sin x =1, the double angle formula 2 cos x sin x = sin 2x, so sin 2x = 1, Since sin (pi/2) = 1, x = pi/4 + n pi.
x=Ď/4 + 2Ďn
2cosx=1/sinx...sin2x=1..x=45
sin 2x =1 is abusing distinguished professor?