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FEYNMAN + LAPLACE: the most overpowered integration collab of all time

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  • čas přidán 5. 10. 2023
  • My two favorite integration techniques combine to evaluate this awesome integral
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Komentáře • 34

  • @datarioplays
    @datarioplays Před 10 měsíci +25

    Do one integral where feynman’s trick fails due to divergence

    • @shivanshnigam4015
      @shivanshnigam4015 Před 10 měsíci +2

      Integral from 0 to infinity (e^-x-1)/x

    • @pacolibre5411
      @pacolibre5411 Před 10 měsíci +4

      I mean, if the integral is divergent anyway, then whether or not you can use Feynman’s rule is kinda moot, isn’t it?
      It’s basically saying “Feynman’s rule can’t help us find the answer because the answer doesn’t exist.” Which doesn’t really have anything to do with the rule itself.
      You’d have to find a function with a limit that converges if you do it in one order, but diverges as a mixed limit, for the hypotheses of the rule to matter.

  • @DD-ce4nd
    @DD-ce4nd Před 10 měsíci +1

    When changing x^2 into x^s, the integral has the closed form: 1/4*GAMMA(1/2*(s+1)/s)*2^(1/s)*(2*ln(2)+Psi(1/2*(s+1)/s)+Psi(1/2*(2*s-1)/s))*Pi^(1/2)/s^2/GAMMA(1/2*(2*s-1)/s) for s in R, s > 1 (and provides the analytic continuation to a wider domain). Psi(z) is the Digamma-function. Limit s -> 1 yields -gamma.

  • @mokhtarmougai5088
    @mokhtarmougai5088 Před 10 měsíci +4

    I love the laplace transform ❤

  • @riadsouissi
    @riadsouissi Před 10 měsíci +2

    I did it a bit differently. I=integral (laplace(sin(x))*inverse_laplace(log(x)/sqrt(x)). The inverse laplace transform of log(x)/sqrt(x) can be solved by assuming it is equal to (a+b*log(x))/sqrt(x) (a bit similar to log(x)/x) then applying the laplace transform, we can find a and b. The integral after that becomes easier to solve.

  • @omarino99
    @omarino99 Před 10 měsíci +1

    Watching the plot of this thing I can barely believe someone managed to computer its integral exactly… it looks like the crazy functions I had fun coming up with in high school just to see how they’d look like.

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před 10 měsíci +1

      Well that's one way of generating cool integrals

  • @MrWael1970
    @MrWael1970 Před 10 měsíci

    Thank you for your innovative video.

  • @Noam_.Menashe
    @Noam_.Menashe Před 10 měsíci +1

    You can pretty easily show the integral with the complex exponential is equal to the same one but with a negative exponent (gamma function integral form) multiplied by a constant factor using complex integration.

    • @192chickenking
      @192chickenking Před 10 měsíci

      how? can you explain more? i want to try without laplace way

    • @Noam_.Menashe
      @Noam_.Menashe Před 10 měsíci

      @@192chickenking search "Cauchy integration thereon". It's an analytic function and use a quarter circle contour.

    • @192chickenking
      @192chickenking Před 10 měsíci

      @@Noam_.Menashe thanks, i see . i thought there was another substitution instead of contour integral lol

  • @mekbebtamrat817
    @mekbebtamrat817 Před 10 měsíci

    Great work

  • @manstuckinabox3679
    @manstuckinabox3679 Před 10 měsíci

    Ah such a satisfying Journey, really brings out the ln(x) in me.

  • @PhysicsNg
    @PhysicsNg Před 10 měsíci +1

  • @timemasterdm2462
    @timemasterdm2462 Před 10 měsíci

    I hope you get better soon, prof. Bro.

  • @giacomocervelli1945
    @giacomocervelli1945 Před 10 měsíci +3

    Nice solution, but i think the Laplace transform part was unncessary, you could have just spammed integration by parts

    • @firmkillernate
      @firmkillernate Před 10 měsíci +6

      We watch for elegance, not for vigor

    • @giacomocervelli1945
      @giacomocervelli1945 Před 10 měsíci

      I do also prefer elegance, but using higher level stuff when you can do it equally easy with elementary tools is not that elegant

    • @giacomocervelli1945
      @giacomocervelli1945 Před 10 měsíci

      Still, thats my opinion, yours may differ

  • @sergten
    @sergten Před 10 měsíci

    Great one. The integral-calculator site had it slightly differently, basically reverting the sign in the parentheses by prepending them by (i - 1)(i + 1) and then rewriting the denominator as 2^(9/2), and rewriting 2*ln(4) as 4*ln(2). I'm amazed that it found an analytical solution. Now I'm curious how that Maxima computer algebra system works.

  • @daddy_myers
    @daddy_myers Před 10 měsíci

    This is absolutely hot.
    Get well soon, homie.

  • @user-zc8yn1xq8e
    @user-zc8yn1xq8e Před 10 měsíci

    Integral (-1)^[x]?
    This what?

  • @GiornoYoshikage
    @GiornoYoshikage Před 10 měsíci +2

    Figured out the solution in few seconds. Still, cool stuff!

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před 10 měsíci +1

      Guess I've left a bad impression on the homies😂

  • @artham6565
    @artham6565 Před 10 měsíci

    At 7:30 ..... Cos is taken as an imaginary part?? ?? please explain sir...i didn't understand

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před 10 měsíci +1

      Phase shift of pi/2 turns a trig ratio into its co ratio

    • @artham6565
      @artham6565 Před 10 měsíci

      @@maths_505 ohh...yes...got it...mind lag....😂😂

  • @nightmareintegral5593
    @nightmareintegral5593 Před 10 měsíci +1

    Sweat integral ❤

  • @fartoxedm5638
    @fartoxedm5638 Před 10 měsíci

    Nice one! I used Ramanujan master theorem btw

  • @appybane8481
    @appybane8481 Před 10 měsíci

    My way is similar to how you Integrate sinx*lnx/x from 0 to inf.