Understanding the Past Perfect Subjunctive in Spanish | The Language Tutor *Lesson 61*
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- čas přidán 14. 03. 2020
- In Lesson 61 Dr. Danny Evans introduces and explains the 'Past Perfect Subjective' in the Spanish language.
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Thumbs up, it always help when teacher smiles
As a native speaker I approved this videos. Well done.
Thank you! 😃
You have been the best Spanish teacher of the subjunctive that I have ever had!
Thank you!!
Hola! profesor, you can't imagine how much good these lessons have done to me, to improve my fleeting understanding of the Espanyol.... kudos.. looking frwrd to many more such learning sessions...
You're very welcome! Thanks for watching Jatin!
¡Excelente! ¡Muchas Gracias!
Great content! Tons of example sentences are super helpful. Exactly what I need right now
You make the topic easier ... Gracias 😊
Just found him and he's helping me tremendously
Really good series on the subjunctive!
I finally understood. Thanks much.
Thanks for your help
I've always struggled with the subjunctive but this guy makes it all clear
Amazing videos covering all topics. I really like your style of delivery and presentation. Very helpful, keep going!
Glad you like them!
Really helpful.
Great examples, great lesson👏🏻
Thank you!!
Great lesson , thank you so much
You are welcome!
You explained this topic very clearly considering that you were thinking of examples in real time. I now uderstand; Thanks! (Subscribed)
Glad it was helpful!
Make the videos on dele preparation sir dany
Hi Danny, the sentences/statements that start with 'if I would have had' ect, why is there no 'que' joining the two subjects together, I thought that the word 'que' in the middle of the sentence was sometimes a give away to a sentence being subjunctive... Thanks in advance! Jake
6:48 great lesson, thank you!
I think the English should say "If I had had the money...(past perfect-had had)
Thanks! 😃
When do I use -ia, -ias etc..? Is it a stem change? a tense? by the way keep up the awesome work!!
Hola Professor! Your lessons are great & thank you for helping. However, I have this doubt that subjunctive always have 2 subjects. In this video in the first 2 examples only 1 subject was there i.e. in " If she had known, she would have helped" only she is there & in "If I had the money then I would have bought the car" only I is there. Can u please clarify this
Are these two forms of the past perfect subjunctive more/less likely to be used in certain countries, or are they used equally in all places?
You know there is always something about other languages I usually wonder about and can't conceive it in my mind, such us, certain gramatical structures, lets use English as an example:
When we are talking about hypotetical situacions in English with the clause if
we usually use if plus a verb in past to contruct the conditional, here is a example
If I had a driving license I would be able to drive ( you dont have a licence but you wish to have one) but the verb have is in past tense, which could also refer to the past but it all depends on the context, here is another example, I had an old truck but now I have a brand new one. You see, my point is that English is contextual but Spanish per say has outlined and dedicated words for each escenario, for example
I had and old truck...
Yo (tuve) un camion viejo
If I had money I would...
si yo (tuviera) what it does is differentiate the word that is used to talk about the past with the word that is used to refer to a hypotetical situation,
so sometimes I ask myself whether native English people see this (Had) word when talking about hypotetical situacion as the same past of the verb and think of the past when posing these situacions or do you see in that word (had) another type of meaning?
this all is complex to explain , but I'd like to know if you get my point.
This is a very good and acute observation of the language! English does hijack past tense forms ("morphology") to also be used in conditional constructions. This is actually a phenomenon used in Germanic languages more generally, not just English. In general, these languages have relatively less inflectional richness than languages like Spanish (i.e. fewer endings), so the need for expressing complex constructions like conditionals needs to "lean" on other things. I highly, highly doubt any English speakers (or indeed, any of the languages which use past morphology in conditionals) actually do focus on the past-ness of these constructions. There's nothing actually "past" about "had" in "If I had a car..." besides how the word is inflected. Sure, it looks like the past tense of "have", but here it's used in the conditional. I guess a more intricate way of thinking of it is that there are two kinds of verb forms: there's one form of the verb "have" that's past tense: "had", like "I had a car (10 years ago)", and there's another form of the verb that happens to look exactly the same but is used in an entire other corner of the grammar: conditional "had" ("if I had a car"). In linguistics this is called "syncretism".
Is there a lesson where “habría” is taught? I feel like that was thrown in like there was assumption that we already knew it, but it is new to me. Thanks!
Habría is a form of the verb haber, meaning "to have," not as having a dog, but in an auxiliary sense. For example, "You had to know that throwing a lit match on a puddle of gasoline would ignite it." It is used in many tenses in Spanish.
Sir, when are you going to upload french lessons?🤗, BTW, your lessons are amazing and I am the age , you were when you just started learning french.
That's so cool Nischit! We are trying really hard to get around 10 French lessons edited so we can start releasing them as soon as possible. We just want to get ahead to make sure they're coming out every week.
Can't wait too for the French lessons to start. I really enjoy and understand your lessons
Thank you. Very helpful. How would you translate this to Spanish - my brother didn’t believe we would (were going to) win the game. It’s a little different from your last example, where action of winning was completed while he was in disbelief. In my example he did not think we were going to ( future from the point in time he didn’t believe) win. Muchas gracias 🙏
Mi hermano no creía que íbamos a ganar el partido
My brother thought we were going to win
Mi hermano creía que íbamos a ganar....
My brother didn’t believe we were going to win
Mi hermano no creía que fuéramos a ganar..
Hola.
En 7:52
Si el hermano hubiera creido que ganaron el partido, se usaría "habíamos?"
"mi hermano creía que habíamos ganado el juego."
Muchas gracias.
sick shirt danny :)
Hello Dr. Evans! Do ``hubiera and hubiese´´ form can be used interchangeably? I am just confused.
Yes, is the same thing
The second is more common in Spain
👍🏻
👍👍👍👍👍
Summary of all videos - the imperfect subjunctive uses all verbs but the present perfect and past perfect only use subjunctive of haber as that is usually the sentence structure?
Is that correct? Or have I misunderstood? If so, I will watch them all again!
The imperfect subjunctive endings are as mentioned (ra, ras, ra, ramos, rais, ran) *using first option
The present perfect subjunctive - uses haber (haya, hayas, haya, hayamos, hayais, hayan) *using first option
The past perfect subjunctive - uses haber (hubiera, hubieras, hubiera, hubieramos, hubierais, hubieran) *using first option
Damn bro, I don't even know what that title means in English
I can understand that.
Ok, for these IF statements why don't we use HAD in BOTH parts of the statement?
More examples please
Sufran aprendiendo mi idioma jsjajdjaj
Carro ..o Coche como se dicen en Espana
can i say instead of ( si hubiera tenido el dinero ) si tuviera el dinero, is it the same meaning ?
yes, that would work. There are several different ways to say things. Good thought!
@@TheLanguageTutor thanks maestro for all the effort,and keep smiling! 😊
@@TheLanguageTutor Thats exactly what I was thinking as the "have" verb in this sentence is related to the possession of something and not just being used as an auxillary verb, so Danny how come its possible to be able to use both answers and still be right?..curious... & txs for the videos, they're making a difference big time
The example is actually If I HAD had the money as opposed to If I had the money... If that makes sense 😝
@@isabellamorrell1386 you're right and if you're not gonna really keep an eye to the examples then you would have probably wronged!
Ok, I am still wondering why, (after 9 months), for these IF statements, why don't we use HAD in BOTH parts of the statement?
It has occurred to me that "haber" is likely the most important verb in Spanish, and the various tenses of "haber" must be committed to memory in order to form compound tenses.
Wouldn't it be "tuviera el dinero"?
Mi hermano no creía que habíamos ganado el juego
I believe there's a slight error in English:
"If I had the money, ..." is the imperfect subjunctive, “Si tuviera el dinero…”
“If I HAD had the money, I would have bought the car” is the pluscoperfect subjunctive “Si hubiera tenido el dinero…”
Es mi tranducción es aceptable? "si tuve la dinero luego tieneria comprando el coche"
There is an English mistake at 6:36. The correct sentence would be "If I had had the money, I would have bought the car"
but when do you use hubiera and when do you use hubiese? he didnt explain this
It’s two different ways of saying it
2:55 not "if I had had the money..."?
Right, an easier way would have just been si tuviera el dinero