Contour integration with a STUNNING result!

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  • čas přidán 7. 09. 2024

Komentáře • 61

  • @Tosi31415
    @Tosi31415 Před měsícem +43

    the phi jumpscares are getting out of hand

  • @CM63_France
    @CM63_France Před měsícem +15

    Hi,
    12:15 : note that tan^-1 (-2) = 2 tan^-1 phi where phi is the golden ratio.
    "ok, cool" : 0:17 , 2:42 , 3:07 , 4:35 , 5:40 , 6:36 , 7:01 , 8:43 , 9:49 , 12:15 ,
    "terribly sorry about that" : 14:47 .

  • @thegermanempire9015
    @thegermanempire9015 Před měsícem +13

    Wake up babe, new Maths 505 dropped.

  • @NorthMavericks-ow7jk
    @NorthMavericks-ow7jk Před měsícem +3

    This truly is complex.

  • @sherinodak7
    @sherinodak7 Před měsícem +5

    „2 is an even number the last time I checked“ XD

  • @cadmio9413
    @cadmio9413 Před 19 dny

    What an amusing video, nevertougth contour integration had such elegance when solving integrals, love it

  • @LinaWainwright
    @LinaWainwright Před měsícem +1

    Another, more elementary, method would be to go off of the addition formula of arctangents [i.e. arctan(a) + arctan(b)=arctan((a + b)/(1 - a b)), for ab

  • @user-jm6rm2xn3z
    @user-jm6rm2xn3z Před měsícem +1

    thank you for this wonderful contour integration

  • @kingzenoiii
    @kingzenoiii Před měsícem +6

    ah yes, the complex realm

  • @SussySusan-lf6fk
    @SussySusan-lf6fk Před měsícem +1

    I(a) =arctan ( 2/(a+x^2)) dx from 0 to infinity
    I'(a) = - int 0 to inf, 2 /(4+a^2 + 2ax^2 + x^4) dx
    By Glasser's master theorem or by general long method, we can deduce that,
    int 0 to inf, 1/(x^4 + bx^2 +c) dx = 1/2 * c^(-3/4) pi /(2 + b/sqrt(c))
    We use it here,
    So,
    I'(a)= - pi/sqrt2 1/{sqrt(4+a^2) * sqrt(a + sqrt(4+a^2)}
    I(1) - I(0)= int 0 to 1, - pi/sqrt2 1/{sqrt(4+a^2) sqrt(a + sqrt(4+a^2)} da
    Now take 2tany = a
    = - pi/2 int 0 to arctan(1/2), secy /sqrt(secy + tany) dy
    = - pi/2 int 0 to 1 arctan(1/2), secy(secy+tany) /(secy +tany)^(3/2) dy
    = [ pi (secy + tany)^(-1/2)] first put arctan(1/2) then 0
    = pi/sqrt(golden ratio) - pi
    I(1) - I(0)= pi/sqrt (golden ratio) - pi
    I(0)= int 0 to inf, arctan (2/x^2) dx
    G(a) = int 0 to inf, arctan (a /x^2) dx
    G'(a) = int 0 to inf, x^2 /(a^2 + x^4) dx
    set x=1/t
    G'(a) = int 0 to inf, 1/(1+a^2 x^4) dx
    G'(a) =int 0 to inf, 1/a^2 1/{(1/a^2) + x^4} dx
    Use the result again again,
    G'(a) = pi/(2sqrt2) 1/sqrt(a)
    G(2) = pi
    I(0)=pi
    I(1) - I(0) = pi /sqrt(golden ratio) - pi
    I(1) = pi /sqrt(golden ratio) - pi + pi
    = pi /sqrt(golden ratio)

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před měsícem

      @@SussySusan-lf6fk nice work

    • @Mathematician6124
      @Mathematician6124 Před měsícem

      Wow! Very nice Susan 😊
      And friend 505 how are you doing btw?

  • @petterituovinem8412
    @petterituovinem8412 Před měsícem

    the elusive contour integration video!

  • @ananyapamde4514
    @ananyapamde4514 Před 13 dny

    3:51 yes bro, we like it thicc

  • @orionspur
    @orionspur Před měsícem +5

    § f-¹(f') vibes

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před měsícem

      More video ideas 😂

    • @aravindakannank.s.
      @aravindakannank.s. Před měsícem +1

      😮 i just realised there is an symbol like this in my keyboard for more than 2+years

  • @machoodin5172
    @machoodin5172 Před měsícem +2

    Couldnt you solve that integral with partial fractions? Great video!

  • @Monokumaaaaaaaaa
    @Monokumaaaaaaaaa Před měsícem +1

    Hi!
    Can someone explain to me why at 3:24 we're considering only the first quandart?

  • @Ertplays
    @Ertplays Před měsícem

    Okay, cool!

  • @phat5340
    @phat5340 Před měsícem +1

    because I like being anal about maths there is no residue of f(z) it's the residue of the 1-form f(z)dz, plus is sounds cooler to call it that

    • @aravindakannank.s.
      @aravindakannank.s. Před měsícem +1

      you mean analysis right? 😂
      right? 😅

    • @stefanalecu9532
      @stefanalecu9532 Před měsícem +2

      ​@@aravindakannank.s. I know you're trying to do a joke, but just so everyone else knows (because I was also confused as hell)
      "Anal" here actually comes from anal-retentive which means extremely or overly neat, careful, or precise, even pedantic. You could also handwave it as being an abbreviation of analytical. Now you know

    • @aravindakannank.s.
      @aravindakannank.s. Před měsícem

      @@stefanalecu9532 👍🏼

  • @CenturionDobrius
    @CenturionDobrius Před měsícem

    Beautiful result 🎉🎉🎉

  • @sidhantmohanty5256
    @sidhantmohanty5256 Před měsícem +1

    Can we also use OP Feynman's trick for this one> I(k) = integral 0 to infinity arctan(k/1+x^2) dx and differentiate.

    • @alexander_elektronik
      @alexander_elektronik Před měsícem +2

      i tried your approach, it results in a nasty denominator since the argument is then 1 + (k^2/(1+x^2)^2 which does not get eliminated with the remaining differential expression

    • @sidhantmohanty5256
      @sidhantmohanty5256 Před měsícem +1

      @@alexander_elektronik
      I'(k) = integral 0 to infinity (1+x^2)dx/[(1+x^2)^2+k^2]
      Now notice that [(1+x^2)^2+k^2] = (1+ik +x^2)*(1 - ik + x^2).
      Then rewrite (1+x^2) as
      (1+x^2) = 0.5*(1+ik+x^2) + 0.5*(1-ik+x^2).
      See where this is going?

    • @SussySusan-lf6fk
      @SussySusan-lf6fk Před měsícem +3

      I have solved this with Feynman's technique... Do you want to see?? I comment??

    • @sidhantmohanty5256
      @sidhantmohanty5256 Před měsícem

      @@SussySusan-lf6fk I've solved it too, thanks

    • @alexander_elektronik
      @alexander_elektronik Před měsícem

      @@SussySusan-lf6fk yes please

  • @viktor-kolyadenko
    @viktor-kolyadenko Před měsícem

    If we talk about comments, then it is not so easy to solve equations of the type (z^2-z1)(z^2-z2) = 0.

  • @niom-nx7kb
    @niom-nx7kb Před 23 dny

    4:11 how do you know z1 is the one in that quadrant?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před 23 dny +1

      @@niom-nx7kb convert it into polar form

  • @MrYousif
    @MrYousif Před měsícem

    Kamaal what's the source do you have to get those crazy integrals 😮

  • @threepointone415
    @threepointone415 Před měsícem

    They weren't wrong when naming it the COMPLEX plane

  • @sadornsamdi3263
    @sadornsamdi3263 Před měsícem

    8:04 how do you determine the limits of integration of I2 from the contour integral ?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před měsícem +1

      The z variable lies on the imaginary axis so z=iy. Since the radius of the circle is growing without bound, z takes on values 0 (lower limit) to i♾️ (upper limit)

  • @mikecaetano
    @mikecaetano Před měsícem

    OK Cool! 😃

  • @F-S.
    @F-S. Před měsícem

    What, why and how?! - Anyway. Love your videos!

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Před měsícem

      @@F-S. Thanks bro but what exactly were the questions 😂?

  • @esphix
    @esphix Před měsícem

    Why am I already giving up at 1:13 😭

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 Před měsícem

    That's happen when you are integration by parts hater
    This integral can be calculated in elementary way
    First integration by parts with du=dx , v = arctan(2/(1+x^2))
    After integration by parts
    Substitution u = sqrt(5)/x
    add to the integral before substiturion and divide by two
    Another substitution u - sqrt(5)/u = v
    and finally we will have arctan

  • @jpf119
    @jpf119 Před měsícem

    Please stop saying 'OK cool'