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A Flipped Differential Equation

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  • čas pƙidĂĄn 21. 04. 2024
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Komentáƙe • 17

  • @skwbusaidi
    @skwbusaidi Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +2

    You can also solve by multiplying by 1-cosz
    We get
    Cosz(1-cosz)/sin^2 z
    = (cosz-cos^2 z)/ sin^2 z
    = cscz cotz - cot^2 z
    = cscz coz +1-csc^2 z
    Now integerate
    -cscz + z + cotz = x+c
    Final answer
    y + cot(x+y) - csc(x+y) = c

  • @ozgurtankut7404
    @ozgurtankut7404 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +2

    Is it impossible that we just rewrite the question as "dy/dx=cos(y+x)", solve it for y and then name all x's as y and all y's as x? I mean, cant we just substitue y with x and x with y and at the end turn them again?

    • @ldanielmule8
      @ldanielmule8 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +1

      I've got with that as well and though the inverse derivative theorem could simplify it a lot, but i'm not sure

  • @Chrisoikmath_
    @Chrisoikmath_ Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +4

    Can't we fine exactly y in terms of x and c only?

  • @bkkboy-cm3eb
    @bkkboy-cm3eb Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +4

    dx/dy=cos(x+y)
    x+y=u dx/dy+1=du/dy
    cos(u)+1=du/dy
    dy = du/(cos(u)+1)
    = (1-cos(u))/sinÂČ(u)·du
    y = -1/tan(u) + 1/sin(u) + C
    y +1/tan(x+y) - 1/sin(x+y) = C

  • @NowInAus
    @NowInAus Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +2

    Lovely and don’t apologise for going over 10 minutes!

  • @subversively6680
    @subversively6680 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +3

    PLZ, answer this
    Why flipping dx/dy
    Can not be solved as x is function of y?????

    • @kevinmadden1645
      @kevinmadden1645 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci

      I believe you are correct .

    • @Chrisoikmath_
      @Chrisoikmath_ Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci

      Sure! That's why the final equation is symmetric with respect to x and y.

  • @scottleung9587
    @scottleung9587 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +2

    Nice!

  • @dominicellis1867
    @dominicellis1867 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci

    Does an explicit expression exist for this implicit solution?

  • @tixanthrope
    @tixanthrope Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci +2

    flipped does not mean much as the RHS is symmetrical in x and y.

  • @84com83
    @84com83 Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci

    Solving for "y", why not Forex?

  • @DonEnsley
    @DonEnsley Pƙed 3 měsĂ­ci

    Problem
    dx/dy = cos(x+y)
    Invert.
    dy/dx = 1 / cos(x+y)
    Let z = x + y
    y = z-x
    dy/dx = dz/dx - 1
    dz/dx = 1 / cos z + 1
    = ( 1 + cos z )/ cos z
    ∫[ cos z / (1+cos z) ] dz = x + k
    ∫[ (cos z +1-1)/ (1+cos z) ] dz = x + k
    ∫dz - ∫ [ 1 / (1+cos z) ] dz = x + k
    z- ∫ 1 / [1+cos 2(z/2) ] dz = x + k
    z- ∫ 1 / [1+2cosÂČ(z/2) -1] dz = x + k
    z- ∫ 1 / [2 cosÂČ (z/2)] dz = x + k
    u = z/2
    dz = 2 du
    z- ∫ 1 / [cosÂČ (u)] du = x + k
    z- ∫ secÂČ (u) du = x + k
    z - tan u = x + k
    z - tan (z/2) = x + k
    x+y - tan((x+y)/2) = x + k
    y - tan((x+y)/2) = k
    x + y = 2 tan⁻Âč(y - k)
    x = 2 tan⁻Âč(y - k) - y
    x = ± 2 tan⁻Âč(y - k) - y
    This gives you
    dx/dy = [1-(y-k)ÂČ]/[1+(y-k)ÂČ]
    tan [(x+y)/2] = y - k
    So
    dx/dy = {1-tanÂČ[(x+y)/2]}/{1+tanÂČ[(x+y)/2]}
    Multiplying top and bottom by cosÂČ [(x+y)/2]
    dx/dy = cosÂČ ((x+y)/2) - sinÂČ ((x+y)/2)
    Or
    dx/dy = cos(x+y)
    Solution:
    x = ± 2 tan⁻Âč(y - k) - y
    Now y in terms of x I could not find.