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Descartes' method of tangents

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  • čas přidán 5. 07. 2024
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Komentáře • 91

  • @notfancy2000
    @notfancy2000 Před 27 dny +38

    That was arduous. Old René sure loved his quartics 😅

  • @orionspur
    @orionspur Před 27 dny +35

    Seems like Descartes was sooo close to discovering differential calculus!

    • @Jeathetius
      @Jeathetius Před 27 dny +11

      So did Fermat, who was arguably even closer! In fact, the two of them fought over who discovered how to find tangents to curves 50 years before Newton and Leibniz did. Another roof has a great video on the topic. czcams.com/video/xKfEmbWBgvM/video.html. Fun fact: the FTC was essentially known by geometric methods before Newton and Leibniz “discovered” it as well.

    • @minamagdy4126
      @minamagdy4126 Před 27 dny +7

      Yeah, everyone in that era was clamouring to find out how to do what we call calculus efficiently. Newton and Leibnitz just so happened to have been the ones to come out with the most efficient thorough system so that it became mainstream, including Leibnitz's notation that is now standard (before then, people used all kinds of notations, or even just long verbal constructions. Newton's notation is... interesting as well)

  • @davidemasi__
    @davidemasi__ Před 27 dny +16

    This method is so beautiful and I also appreciate the historical aspect of it. Thank you for sharing it!

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 27 dny +12

    Great video. Loved it. Descartes also modified or refined his method to by-pass the circle. It's all in the double root. Late 1630's maybe? For your example:
    Center is still C(a,0) with P(3,9)
    slope_R = 9/(3-a) ====> slope_T = (a-3)/9
    Equation Of Tangent: y - 9 = (a-3)/9 * (x - 3) ===> y = (a-3)/9 *x + (30-a)/3
    Intersection of Curve with Tangent: x^2 = (a-3)/9*x + (30-a)/3 ====> x^2 + (3-a)/9 * x + (a-30)/3 must equal x^2 - 6x +9
    for a double root at x=3.
    Equate co-efficients of x: (3-a)/9 = -6 =====> a = 57
    m_t = (57-3)/9 = 6
    You can verify the constant term if you want: (57-30)/3 = 9
    Easier to force the Tangent to have a double root than the Circle.
    =======================================================
    Here's a cubic with no circle in sight :Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y = 2x^3 + 4x^2 - 5x + 3 at x = 1 ===> y = 4.
    1) The Equation of the tangent: y - 4 = m(x - 1)
    2) Intersect with the curve: 2x^3 + 4x^2 - 5x + 3 = mx - m + 4
    2x^3 + 4x^2 +x[ -5 -m] + [m-1] = 0 and FORCE a double root at x = 1 (necessary condition for tangency)
    3) 2x^3 + 4x^2 +x[ -5 -m] + [m-1] = (x-1)^2*(2x - t)
    4)Expand the RHS : 2x^3 + x^2 [-t - 4] + x[2t + 2] - [ t ] and equate coeffiicients.
    5) (a) 4 = -t - 4 ===> t = -8
    (b) -5 - m = 2t + 2 ====> m = 9
    ( c) -t = m - 1 not needed, but -8 and 9 verify.
    You can also adapt this method for finding Stationary Points. Requires polynomial long division though - but no Calculus.

    • @MichaelRothwell1
      @MichaelRothwell1 Před 26 dny +2

      Thank you for this. Of course it's much easier (and more intuitive) to find the tangent directly (forget the circles) using repeated roots.

    • @bhargavsai8014
      @bhargavsai8014 Před 14 dny

      correct me if i am wrong but why do we need a double root condition in case of the second example where we are dealing with a cubic curve,i mean the only thing required is that the cubic in step 2 shouldnt have more than 1 distinct real root,that leaves us with just two possibilities,either all of the roots are 1(which in this case is not possible just by looking at the cubic) or it has exacly one real root(which is 1) and the other two being complex conjugate,what am i missing?

    • @MichaelRothwell1
      @MichaelRothwell1 Před 14 dny +1

      @@bhargavsai8014 you need a double root for tangency. A single root would correspond to a secant, i.e. a line simply crossing the cubic on the LHS of equation 2. That would not be a tangent.
      You can think of it like this: imagine a line cutting a curve in two points close together. This would be close to being a tangent. Then rotate the line about one of the points of intersection so that the other point of intersection moves towards the fixed point until they coincide. Then we have a tangent and a double point of intersection. This is a double root in the equation that equates the curve to the tangent line.

    • @ianfowler9340
      @ianfowler9340 Před 13 dny

      @@bhargavsai8014 Let's use his simple example : y = x^2 at (3,9). Skipping the details we get m = 6. I don't think he found the equation - just the slope. The equation of the tangent is : y = 6x - 9. Intersect that with y = x^2 and we get : x^2 = 6x-9 ====> x^2 - 6x + 9 = 0 ====> (x-3)^2 = 0, a double root at x = 3. You get away with "set the discriminant = 0" to find m ONLY because the original curve was a quadratic. i.e. x^2 - mx - 3m -9 = 0. B^2-4AC = 0 gives m^2 - 4(3m-9) = 0 and (m-6)^2 = 0.
      Think of a cubic. The tangent at some point on the cubic will intersect the cubic at only 2 points, not 3 - yet there are 3 real solutions. Hence the double root. Try this for yourself:
      y = x^3 - 5x^2 + 7 @ P(2-5).
      Find the equation of the tangent : y = -8x + 11
      Intersect the tangent and the cubic: x^3 - 5x^2 + 7 = -8x + 11 and solve this equation. x^3 - 5x^2 + 8x - 4 = 0. You already know that x = 2 MUST be a solution.
      Divide by x-2 to get (x-2)(x^2 - 3x +2) = 0 and factor again to get: (x-2)(x -2)(x-1) = 0 and you can see the double root at x = 2.
      The tangent only intersects the cubic at (2,-5) and (1,3)

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 25 dny +2

    So one last comment on the "circle method". If you try y = x^3 at (2,8) you quickly discover that the y^2 term in the circle equation becomes x^6. That means forcing a double root gets you (x - 2)^2 * [quartic] . No wonder Descartes revised his method. I bet he got a lot of push back on that one.
    On the other hand, if you intersect y = x^3 with the tangent you get : x^3 - mx + (2m - 8) = 0 and then force a double root at x = 2: (x - 2)^2*(x - t). You very easily get t = -4 and m = 12.
    One of the giant's shoulders that Newton mentions he stood upon was most certainly Descartes ( not to mention Kepler, Galileo, ...). Pretty fine praise from the tallest giant of them all. Thanks very much Michael for such a great classic solution.

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 26 dny +4

    Here is another cool method - no calculus. Given f(x) = 5x^4 - 3x^3 + 2x^2 - 4x + 3. Divide by x-2. to get constant remainder R and quotient Q(x). Evaluate Q(2) and note remaiber R. Now use come calculus to find the equation of the tangent at x=2 and voila! Can you prove this always works?

  • @user-yt198
    @user-yt198 Před 27 dny +7

    I can see professor's pain when avoiding himself to use derivates (which wasn't invented yet).

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 27 dny +4

    Another cool video might be: Fermat's Method for Finding Tangents.

  • @finnboltz
    @finnboltz Před 27 dny +10

    This is just creepy.
    I was just thinking about what a version of Taylor series where you approximate the function using circles instead of polynomials, and it reminded me of Descartes's method of finding tangent lines. Now I see a video about it in my feed.
    Is Michael stalking me?

  • @f.r.y5857
    @f.r.y5857 Před 26 dny

    I really love this video, keep up the good work sir.

  • @Sublight_Drive
    @Sublight_Drive Před 16 dny

    You can tell this is a historical method of solving a problem because it requires knowing half a dozen highly specific Polynomial Facts

  • @urnoob5528
    @urnoob5528 Před 26 dny +2

    Bruh everything can be bruteforced in coordinates
    U could even just use linear equations and some geometry for this
    I thought it was some secret method
    Turns out it was something SIMILAR to what i did in highschool

  • @jacemandt
    @jacemandt Před 27 dny +1

    I think I imagined that mathematicians before the development of calculus weren't even trying to find tangents to curves, but of course that's too important of a mathematical idea to leave behind. So *of course* they were finding tangents. Never even wondered how they did it until now!

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 26 dny +1

    The quadratic does not need to be irreducible. Try y = x^3-9x^2+24x-3 at x=3. So cool. What is happening at x = 3??

  • @mskellyrlv
    @mskellyrlv Před 27 dny +2

    Isn't the hypotenuse the longest side of a right triangle? If so, O-P couldn't be the hypotenuse. Did I hear that wrong?

    • @JacobNingen-zu6zs
      @JacobNingen-zu6zs Před 27 dny +5

      The hypotenuse is the side opposite the right angle which would be OP if OQ were perpendicular and Q were not P. However due to catchy Schwarz and the parallel postulate the hypotenuse must be sqrt(a^2+b^2) which is greater than a and b but he was using that to show that OP and l are perpendicular.

  • @DrR0BERT
    @DrR0BERT Před 27 dny +4

    Question: What is the symbol Michael uses for "at" at 7:49. It looks like a 3 with a dot above it. I've been doing mathematical proofs for over 40 years, and I am not familiar with it.

    • @BridgeBum
      @BridgeBum Před 26 dny

      The use of a symbol there except @ struck me as well, I'm not familiar with it, I thought he was just drawing a semicolon (;) but maybe the intent was something different. I'd love to hear more insights.

    • @knivesoutcatchdamouse2137
      @knivesoutcatchdamouse2137 Před 26 dny +1

      I've never seen it before either.

    • @Alan-zf2tt
      @Alan-zf2tt Před 26 dny +1

      I think it is another form of 'and' &, .. ampersand ... crossed epsilon Google is a friend and so is wiki
      en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ampersand scroll down to Histort section/parahraph

    • @DrR0BERT
      @DrR0BERT Před 26 dny +1

      @@Alan-zf2tt I thought of that as a possibility, but he says "at". But even the ampersand would have dots above and below. But so far, that's the best explanation (the only one too).

  • @ianfowler9340
    @ianfowler9340 Před 22 dny +1

    Here are my thoughts on why I think the quadratic factor, (x^2+bx+c), in (x-3)^ (x^2+bx+c) is automatically irreducible.
    In general a parabola and a circle can have as many as 4 intersection points. But here you are forcing the circle to have its center on x-axis and the parabola to open up or down. Such a circle and such a parabola can intersect in at most 2 points. Also, you are forcing the circle to be tangent to the parabola - hence the double root. So if the quadratic
    (x ^2 + bx + c) on the RHS : (x-3)^2*(x^2 + bx + c) was reducible then it would produce 2 more real roots ====> 3 intersection points between the circle (center on the x - axis) and the parabola (opening up). This cannot happen. Therefore x^2 + bx + c = 0 will have no real roots. If the parabola opens right or left then just place the center on the y-axis.
    Thoughts?

  • @kodtech
    @kodtech Před 25 dny

    You sound liked "Dr Peyam" ! 🤣

  • @howwitty
    @howwitty Před 27 dny +1

    I like this.

  • @jardozouille1677
    @jardozouille1677 Před 27 dny +10

    Descartes should have discovered the derivatives instead 🤭

  • @eartphoze
    @eartphoze Před 27 dny

    1,4,9 = 3,5,4, while 19 = (a,0 & 3,9) , 1/6= (0,54) gremlins

  • @bernardlemaitre4701
    @bernardlemaitre4701 Před 17 dny

    OP2 + PQ2 = OQ2 !!!!

  • @VideoFusco
    @VideoFusco Před 27 dny

    Why don't you use the Ruffini theorem?

    • @zh84
      @zh84 Před 27 dny +7

      It was discovered in 1799. Descartes died in 1650. He wouldn't have used a technque that was only invented a century and a half after his death.

  • @varun3282
    @varun3282 Před 27 dny +1

    can you explain how thats the irreducible form of a quadratic?

    • @015Fede
      @015Fede Před 27 dny +3

      Because (x-h)^2 is always non-negative and k^2 is always positive (given that k≠0). Therefore their sum can never be 0, i.e irreducible (by the factor theorem of polynomials)

    • @ingiford175
      @ingiford175 Před 27 dny +1

      @@015Fede Had to work that out in my head when he said that, but that is what I came up with also.

    • @ianfowler9340
      @ianfowler9340 Před 26 dny +1

      You could also use (x-3)^2(x^2+bx+c)

    • @ingiford175
      @ingiford175 Před 26 dny +1

      @@ianfowler9340 yes, but once you get solutions you will have to show it is irreducible.

    • @ianfowler9340
      @ianfowler9340 Před 26 dny +2

      @@ingiford175 I don't think it does needs to be irreducible. You could, for example, find the equation of the tangent at an inflection point - say a cubic at the IP. In such a case you will end up getting a triple root, (x-a)^3 on the RHS. And even if it is irreducible, x^2+bx+c will automatically be irreducible.
      Try y = x^3-9x^2+24x-3 at x=3

  • @stephenhamer8192
    @stephenhamer8192 Před 27 dny

    The fact the y-co-ord of the tangent circle is zero comes from a symmetry argument?

    • @015Fede
      @015Fede Před 27 dny

      Na, there are infinitely many tangent circles. He just chose one centered at y=0 for simplicity

    • @stephenhamer8192
      @stephenhamer8192 Před 26 dny +1

      @@015Fede (duh) Of course! Any circle centred on the normal to the tangent would do; Penn just makes use of the fact that the normal is not parallel to y = 0; i.e., that the tangent is not vertical

  • @Happy_Abe
    @Happy_Abe Před 27 dny

    @3:38 why does this imply P=Q?
    Think of an isosceles triangle ABC where BC lay on the same line and AB=AC yet B does not equal to C

    • @aniruddhvasishta8334
      @aniruddhvasishta8334 Před 27 dny +2

      OQ is perpendicular to L by definition of Q, which means that OQ is the smallest distance from any point on L to O. I believe the existence and uniqueness of such a point is either an axiom of Euclidean geometry or a definition or a trivial result. In any case, this means that if another point P is on L such that OP=OQ then P=Q. I don't think this justification makes the argument circular or contradictory.

    • @Happy_Abe
      @Happy_Abe Před 27 dny +1

      @@aniruddhvasishta8334 gotcha thanks
      But how we know such a Q exists?
      This just shows if there’s such a Q then P=Q. But we don’t a priori know that a tangent hits the circle at a perpendicular point, just that any such point on said line would be on the circle but how do we know there are any such Q’s?
      Not from this argument it seems

    • @aadfg0
      @aadfg0 Před 27 dny +1

      You're right. Here's a fix: OQ^2 + PQ^2 ≤ OQ^2 as in the video, which implies PQ^2 ≤ 0 -> PQ = 0 -> P = Q

    • @Happy_Abe
      @Happy_Abe Před 26 dny +1

      @@aadfg0
      Perfect thank you. I think this should have been mentioned.
      In any case there’s still the issue of showing such a Q exists. He showed uniqueness, but not existence.

    • @aadfg0
      @aadfg0 Před 26 dny +1

      @@Happy_Abe Q is defined as the point such that OQ is perpendicular to l. Do you wish for a proof that perpendiculars exist? There many at various levels depending on what you're willing to accept.

  • @Unknown-vj4yb
    @Unknown-vj4yb Před 24 dny

    What!

  • @allanjmcpherson
    @allanjmcpherson Před 26 dny +1

    Going through all that for such a simple problem makes me really appreciate differential calculus. Imagine if we could only calculate slopes at points, and every time we had to do all of that!

  • @user-yz3he2jm4o
    @user-yz3he2jm4o Před 26 dny

    I think he made a mistake. OP^2+PQ^2=OQ^2.

  • @TedHopp
    @TedHopp Před 26 dny +2

    The proof that the radius is perpendicular to the tangent is flawed. In particular, OP = OQ does not (by itself) imply P = Q. (They could be sides of an Isosceles triangle, so you have to bring in the fact that the base angles would then both be 90°, meaning that the triangle was degenerate.) A simpler argument is to go back to the inequality OQ^2 + PQ^2 ≤ OQ^2, hence PQ^2 ≤ 0, from which it follows that P = Q since PQ^2 ≥ 0.

  • @rzeqdw
    @rzeqdw Před 27 dny +3

    3:00 shouldn't it be OP^2 + PQ^2 = OQ^2? OP is not the hypotenuse!

    • @urnoob5528
      @urnoob5528 Před 26 dny +1

      Bro both works, did u listen

    • @JacobNingen-zu6zs
      @JacobNingen-zu6zs Před 26 dny

      If OQ were perpendicular to l and P,Q distinct it would be.

  • @GrouchierThanThou
    @GrouchierThanThou Před 26 dny +1

    For the radius being perpendicular to the circle I think a proof by contradiction would have been easier to follow.
    Suppose OP is not perpendicular to the tangent. Let Q ≠ P be such that OQ is perpendicular to the tangent. That makes OQ the shortest distance from O to the tangent and therefore OQ < OP. But OP is the hypotenuse of the right triangle OPQ and therefor OP > OQ. By contradiction then the assumption that OP was not perpendicular to the tangent must have been wrong.

  • @kurt.dresner
    @kurt.dresner Před 27 dny +1

    Can you explain why a symmetry argument is insufficient?

  • @mxminecraft9410
    @mxminecraft9410 Před 27 dny +4

    Noice

  • @godfreypigott
    @godfreypigott Před 26 dny +1

    Now generalise it .... see you next year.

  • @JustNow42
    @JustNow42 Před 27 dny +5

    OQ^2+QP^2 = OP^2 REALLY? A small mishap. You are actually very good and relaxing.

    • @davidemasi__
      @davidemasi__ Před 27 dny +12

      @@JustNow42 this is in fact correct, he's assuming that the angle in Q is right to prove that Q=P

    • @PetraKann
      @PetraKann Před 27 dny +3

      I had the same thought initially

    • @davidcroft95
      @davidcroft95 Před 27 dny +1

      Were you listening? Or you just saw the equation and jumped to comment?

    • @JacobNingen-zu6zs
      @JacobNingen-zu6zs Před 26 dny

      hes setting up a contradiction

    • @JacobNingen-zu6zs
      @JacobNingen-zu6zs Před 26 dny

      assuming OQ perpendicular to l and Q not P its correct. Which is the point as since Q is outside the circle OQ is bigger than OP a contradiction with pythagoras. we can go one of four ways deny Pythagoras and thus parallel postulate ,two deny P as a point of tangency deny OQ perpendicular to l or deny Q and P distinct. All three alternatives are less attractive then P=Q so we choose P=Q

  • @MeyouNus-lj5de
    @MeyouNus-lj5de Před 27 dny +4

    Euclid, Descartes, Newton and Einstein:
    0D (indivisible, subatomic, non-natural): not fundamental
    1D, 2D, 3D and 4D (divisible, atomic, natural): fundamental
    Leibniz:
    0D (indivisible, subatomic, non-natural): fundamental
    1D, 2D, 3D and 4D (divisible, atomic, natural): not fundamental
    Can someone explain to me how stuff that can be divided further is fundamental and stuff that cannot be divided further is not fundamental?
    In geometry any new dimension has to contain within it all previous dimensions.
    Kinda seems like Euclid, Descartes, Newton and Einstein sucked at geometry.

    • @strangeWaters
      @strangeWaters Před 27 dny +8

      The notion of things being "fundamental" is an artifact of the axiomatic method. You need to pick somewhere to start in math, but often you could have started somewhere else and gotten to the same place.
      It's like a choosing an origin and basis. You could have picked another one and gotten the same result. None of them is the "true" one, they all work.

    • @wolliwolfsen291
      @wolliwolfsen291 Před 27 dny

      2:16 ??? The right angle is at the point P, because the line l is a tangent to the radius OP => OQ must be the hypontenuse !???

    • @stefanalecu9532
      @stefanalecu9532 Před 27 dny

      Nice try, LLM

    • @robertmauck4975
      @robertmauck4975 Před 27 dny +3

      ​@@wolliwolfsen291 He picked a point Q on the line such that there is a right angle between the segment OQ and line L. The proof is trying to show that doing so leads to the conclusion that point Q must be point P, showing that the radius at that point is perpendicular to the tangent line.

    • @MeyouNus-lj5de
      @MeyouNus-lj5de Před 27 dny +1

      @strangeWaters
      Yeah fundamental and not fundamental aren't the current scientific lingo, it's locally real and not locally real.
      They mean the same thing though. Leibniz said necessary and contingent. Different ways of talking about the same thing.
      It's all in reference to 0D and non-zero dimensions. Non-natural and natural, quantum and classical.
      We already proved the observable natural dimensions (1D-4D) are not locally real so it's contradictory that two years after that Nobel Prize we're still also calling the observable universe fundamental.
      Kinda crazy it took a Nobel Prize to prove stuff that can be divided further (natural, divisible stuff) is not fundamental. We really aren't that advanced. It's unfortunate how we learn about the fundamental subatomic stuff last.