Before Abraham Was, I Am
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- čas přidán 5. 06. 2022
- In John 8, Jesus says that Abraham rejoiced to see his day--how did this "seeing" happen? What does Christ mean by, "Before Abraham was, I am"? How does this connect with Yahweh saying in Exodus 3, "I am who I am"? Why did the opponents of Jesus call him a Samaritan and one with a demon? What does it mean to "keep" Jesus' words and not see death? These and other questions, Chad Bird addresses in this week's video on Reading the Gospels through Hebrew Eyes.
Samaritan video: • Who Are the Samaritans...
🛐🙏😭Heavenly Father JesusGod, I know that I am a sinner. I know that I deserve the consequences of my sin. However, I am trusting in Jesus Christ as my Savior. I believe that His death and resurrection provided for my forgiveness. I trust in Jesus and Jesus alone as my personal Lord and Savior. Thank you Lord, for saving me and forgiving me! In JesusMightyGod's holy name, Amen!"
Thank you for your teachings,it is a great blessing to me,from South Africa
EXCELLENT WAY OF TEACHING! Thanks a lot!
God bless you Chad Bird…
So good. Thank you!
"Everything Christ gives us," that would be called GRACE! 😃
🙏🙏🙏
The opposing Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming that he had “seen Abraham,” although, as they said, Jesus was “not yet 50 years old.” (Joh 8:57) Jesus’ response was to tell them about his prehuman existence as a mighty spirit creature in heaven before Abraham was born. The argument that the Greek expression used here, e·goʹ ei·miʹ (rendered “I am” in some Bibles), is an allusion to the Septuagint rendering of Exodus 3:14 and that both verses should be rendered the same way. In this context, however, the action expressed by the Greek verb ei·miʹ started “before Abraham came into existence” and was still in progress.
It is therefore properly translated “I have been” rather than “I am,” and several ancient and modern translations use wording similar to “I have been.”
In fact, in Joh 14:9, the same form of the Greek verb ei·miʹ is used to render Jesus’ words: “Even after I have been with you men for such a long time, Philip, have you not come to know me?” Most translations use similar wording, showing that depending on context there is no valid grammatical objection to rendering ei·miʹ as “have been.” (Other examples of rendering a present tense Greek verb using a present perfect tense verb are found in Luke 2:48; 13:7; 15:29; John 15:27; Acts 15:21; 2 Corinthians 12:19; 1 John 3:8.)
Also, Jesus’ reasoning recorded in John 8:54, 55 shows that he was not trying to portray himself as being the same person as his Father. Furthermore, reread the whole account starting in John 8:12 - Did the Pharisees understand Jesus in any way or grasp what he was saying? They repeatedly misunderstood Jesus - in fact, there was not a single thing they got correct. Jesus was even so frustrated with them that he said „Why am I even talking to you?“ (John 8:25, 27) When they asked him why he said he saw Abraham, as he wasn’t even 50 years old, he said „ego eimi“ - guess what they did? They misunderstood him AGAIN! So what Trinitarians are saying is that Pharisees who did get Jesus wrong the whole time, all of a sudden understood him correctly by him claiming to be God only by saying „ego eimi“ - you recognize how ridiculous that argument is?
Going even further into the whole context of John 8, you'll see that they (the Pharisees) continuously felt their authority being questioned, and they became more and more exposed by Jesus for their false reasonings. It was this, that caused the Pharisees to lose it and attempt to stone Jesus, as by stating that Jesus had seen Abraham, he claimed even higher authority than Abraham. For the Pharisees, Abraham was the highest human authority, and they understood Jesus to claim higher authority than themselves, which was unacceptable insubordination - they hated him for it! So, it wasn't their fear of God that caused them to perceive Jesus' word as sinful utterances of a man, it was their selfish pride that caused them to act in utter outrage because this Jesus had dared to question their authority repeatedly and established that his authority was higher than theirs!
I heard that Abraham rejoiced when Melchizadek was incarnation of Jesus and they do communion.
Truth in translating . J ason david be duhn . University press of america. Ch 10 103-111. I AM.
All Jesus was saying is that He existed in Heaven before the spiritual being, who incarnated on earth as Abraham, was created. Why do people try to make these things sound so complicated?
Because "I am" takes us to the OT divine self-declarations of Yahweh himself.
@@chadbird1517Yahweh is the father of Jesus? God must made tremendous changes or the Old Testament is constantly falsified.
💗❤❤💞This Gospel message if you continue to believe this message, you will be saved: For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures, and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. Then he appeared to more than five hundred brothers at one time,
Dr Bird, I’m sorry but your comments completely ignore the grammar of the 8 so-called I am verses in John which are convertible propositions with the predicate noun functioning as the identity of Jesus not I am. These verses are not grammatical parallels to John 8:58.
Please identify the main verb of the sentence. When you do you’ll see that εγω ειμι is in no way acting as a personal pronoun. There is much more to be said on the grammar of course
Thanks for your comment and question. My videos are not in-depth looks at Greek grammar since many--probably most--of my viewers do not know Greek. Thus, I rarely deal with minute grammatical issues. Of course, as you know, whole books have been written on the grammar of John 8:58, so I will not spend time doing so here. Online debating is not my thing anyway (though I'm glad it is for others). But I do thank you for your interaction here and on TikTok. God bless.
@@chadbird1517 If I may, these grammatical issues involved with your statements are hardly minute. And I was seeking an open dialogue with you on this not a debate…would that we could
Hello
Jesus is the Messiah
The Son of God
The Son of David
The Son of man
The man God has chosen to be his anointed king
The man God will judge the world through
The man God raised from the dead
Jesus will return and rule the nations with believers in the kingdom of God on the earth
Jesus has a God
There is no triune god in scripture
Jesus said the Father is the only true God!
John 17
3 And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.
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Acts 3
13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Servant Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied before the face of Pilate, when he had determined to release him.
14 But ye denied the Holy and Righteous One, and asked for a murderer to be granted unto you,
15 and killed the Prince of life; whom God raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.
Notice Jesus is NOT the God of Abraham
13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Servant Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied before the face of Pilate, when he had determined to release him.
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No Jesus didn’t use Exodus 3 in John 8
Jesus said before Abraham was born “ego eimi” which means I am he
Multiple people say ego eimi in the New Testament, but you’re not saying they are God?
The blind man who was healed said it
John 9
9 Some said, “It is he”; others said, “No, but he is like him.” He said, “I am the man.”
I am the man= ego eimi
The healed blind man just said ego eimi, did he just refer to Exodus and claim to be God?? Of course not
I believe in the Greek translation of Exodus it says
“Ego eimi HO ON”-I AM THAT I AM
“Tell them I AM has sent you”-tell them HO ON has sent you
Had Jesus said HO ON you may have a point, but he didn’t
From south africa ,A christian myself dont understand y christian force this on Yeshua.John 20:17 and John17:3 but again .When Yeshua was praying ,who was he praying to himself.Yeshua never claimed this thing pls stop this lie
If this is true why would Jesus say ‘there is none good but God’ and ‘why do you call me good?’ Take this into the context that a perfect sacrificial lamb (Jesus) needed to be atoned for our sins. Logically if no one is without sin minus God and Jesus paid for our sins, how did Jesus atone for our sins if He is not God?
@@Sass2000Cass
Hello!
Thanks for responding
Nowhere does it say God has to die for us, that’s something not biblical
Please use the logic as I stated above. Yes it is Biblical that Christ Himself died for us (Romans 5:8) and that He is God (John 1:14 Colossians 2:9-10 and several others). So God Himself did die for our sins. Also see the logic I set out in my reply as well.
@@Sass2000Cass
Why would it not one time say that? I mean the entire New Testament never says God died, that would be pretty ridiculous to say. Wouldn’t it say it at least once?
Before Abraham was I am:
In the knowledge and the plans of God (predestiny)
Here is what God said to Jeremiah:
Then the word of the Lord came unto me, saying,
5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.
Jeremiah 1:5
Prophet Solomon is reported in Proverbs 8:23-27, to have said: “23 Ages ago I was set up at the first, before the beginning of the earth.
24 When there were no depths I was brought forth, when there were no springs abounding with water, 25 Before the mountains had been shaped, before the hills, I was brought forth; 26 before he had made
the earth with its fields, or the first of the dust of the world 27 When he established the
heavens, I was there.”
According to Job 38:4 and 21, God addresses Prophet Job as follows: “4 Where were you when I laid the foundation of the earth? Tell me, if you have understanding...
21 You Know, for you were born then, and the number of your days is great!”