Head loss due to friction in a pipe using Moody Diagram and the Darcy-Weisbach equation

Worked example of how to find head loss due to friction in a pipe using the Moody Diagram and the Darcy-Weisbach equation.

[@1Mp51]

I swear that he's the best lecturer at the university, Thank you so much for being such a great gentleman.

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks 😊

[@bma6469]

My guy never disappointed when come to his fields of expertise. Thank you once again and Keep it up, I'm the biggest consumer of your materials.

[@stevew3384]

Really well presented material. I’m returning to this subject after 30 years and this kind of clarity is greatly appreciated. Well done sir.

[@davidkyte5076]

Hi. I have watched many tutorials on variety of subjects. This guy is a great tutor and explains things clearly and slowly, and I thank him for sharing this knowledge on line.

[@oleopathic]

Agreed. He has a gift.

[@sarahmarouaessalhi850]

Sway more clear and compréhensible than the one I have just watched, Thanks for the effort this is what we call an éternel charity of knowledge.

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks for the comment!

[@oleopathic]

Thank you so much. Studying for the civil professional engineering exam in the states. Your approach is clear, concise, and impactful.
I love your conceptual approach to the physical and mathematical. This kind of thinking, the "what if" is what's required to pass the exam.
3 examples and a healthy dose of theory! Certainly I grew in wisdom today!

[@rupesh.nz0613]

Perfect explanation and use of example slowly taking us through each step. Thanks a lot! :)

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks!

[@thomasgaderer7328]

Moody diagram finally makes sense, thank you very much!! !

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks for the comment, glad it helped!

[@Coltematic]

For 1968 as the Re, you can divide that by 64 for laminar flow. You'll get f as .0325

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks for the comment. Absolutely, and this is probably the easiest way to do it for laminar flow. But in this video I was mainly trying to demonstrate how to read the chart.

[@ricardoanderson3763]

AMAZIINGGG thanks so much for this!! really good help before my exam
Thanks and dont stop !!

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks for the comment, really happy it helped!

[@gorantahseen4928]

many thanks your videos are very useful

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks, glad it was useful!

[@heathavpatel4033]

Thanks ❤

[@polrisueno1509]

Great video, do you have videos on Hydrology & Water Resources??

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Thanks for the comment. I am planning to do some in the next few months, so keep an eye on the channel!

[@galearobert1289]

do you know how you would obtain this in Watts (W) ?

[@thangcogang2739]

Thanks

[@damoooooooooo1121212]

Hi mate, how come you didn't use the density of water ? i got the cal of 1946566.337 when i added density (kg/m3) of 20 degrees at density of 998.2? when working out reynolds number

[@fluidsexplained1901]

Hi Bruce, this is because there are two ways to calculate Re, the way I did it is ( velocity x diameter) / kinematic viscosity, where I assume kinematic viscosity is 10^-6 m^2/s. The other way you can do it, which is the way shown on the x-axis of the Moody Diagram and the way I think you have done it, is (velocity x density x diameter) / dynamic viscosity. Kinematic viscosity is defined as dynamic viscosity over density, so for this example where I assume kinematic viscosity as 10^-6 m^2/s, dynamic viscosity would be 10^-3 kg/ms (assuming density is 1000 kg/m^3, you have used a more precise definition). So calculating Re using the formula on the Moody diagram would be Re = (1000 x 1.64 x 0.012 )/10-3=19680. Hope that makes sense and clears it up?

[@damoooooooooo1121212]

@@fluidsexplained1901 hey mate, yes it does thank you very much.